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Answer the following questions:
1 - Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942?
A. It was a non-violent movement.
B. It was led by Mahatma Gandhi.
C. It was a spontaneous movement.
D. It did not attract the labour class in general.
________________________________________
2 - Consider the following pairs:
1. B. G. Tilak - founder of the Poona SarvajanikSabha.
2. Madan Mohan Malaviya - founder of Banaras Hindu University.
3. Keshab Chandra Sen - Leader of BrahmoSamaj.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
________________________________________
3 - Who among the following Governor General created the Covenanted Civil Service of India which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service?
A. Warren Hastings.
B. Wellesley.
C. Cornwallis.
D. William Bentinck.
________________________________________
4 - Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times?
1. Buddha was by that time considered as one of the incarnations of Vishnu and thus became a part of Vaishnavism.
2. The invading tribes from Central Asia till the time of last Gupta king adopted Hinduism and persecuted Buddhists.
3. The Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
________________________________________
5 - With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, “Home Charges” formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted “Home Charges”?
1. Funds used to support the India Office in London.
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India.
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
________________________________________
6 - With reference to the Simon Commission’s recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct?
A. It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the province.
B. It proposed the setting up of inter – provincial council under the Home Department.
C. It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre.
D. It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits and compared to Indian recruits.
________________________________________
7 - Among the following Presidents of India, who was also the Secretary General of Non-Aligned Movement for some period?
A. Dr. SarvepalliRadhakrishnan
B. VarahagiriVenkatagiri
C. GianiZail Singh
D. Dr. ShankerDayal Sharma
________________________________________
8 -Anekāntavāda is a core theory and philosophy of which one of the following?
A. Buddhism
B. Jainism
C. Sikhism
D. Vaishnavism
________________________________________
9 - In the context of the Indian freedom struggle, 16th October 1905 is well known for which one of the following reasons?
A. The formal proclamation of Swadeshi Movement was made in Calcutta town hall
B. Partition of Bengal took effect
C. DadabhaiNaoroji declared that the goal of India National Congress was Swaraj
D. LokmanyaTilak started Swadeshi Movement in Poona
________________________________________
10 - Consider the following statements:
The Cripps Proposals include the provision for
1. Full independence for India.
2. Creation of Constitution-making body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
-------------------------------------------------------------
11 - Consider the following statements:
1. The first telegraph line in India was laid between Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) and Diamond Harbour.
2. The first Export processing zone in India was set up in Kandla.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
________________________________________
12 - Consider the following statements:
1. The Cholas defeated Pandya and Chera rulers and established their domination over peninsular India in the early medieval times.
2. The Cholas sent an expedition against Sailendraempire of South East Asia and conquered some of the areas.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
________________________________________
13 - During the freedom struggle, ArunaAsaf Ali was a major woman organizer of underground activity in?
A. Civil Disobedience Movement
B. Non-Cooperation Movement
C. Quit India Movement
D. Swadeshi Movement
________________________________________
14 -During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did Rowlatt Act arouse popular indignation?
A. It curtailed the freedom of religion.
B. it suppressed the Indian traditional education
C. it authorized the government to imprison people without trial
D. it curbed the trade union activities
________________________________________
15 -In collaboration with Dravid hare and Alexander Duff, who of the following established Hindu College at Calcutta?
A. Henry Louis Vivian Derozio
B. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
C. Keshab Chandra Sen
D. Raja Rammohan Roy
________________________________________
16 - Which one of the following began with the Dandi March?
A. Home rule Movement
B. Non-Cooperation Movement
C. Civil disobedience Movement
D. Quit India Movement
________________________________________
17 - Who of the following Prime Ministers sent Cripps Mission to India?
A. James Ramsay MacDonald
B. Stanley Baldwin
C. Neville Chamberlain
D. Winston Churchill
________________________________________
18 - With which one of the following movements is the slogan 'Do or die' associated?
A. Swadeshi Movement
B. Non-Cooperation Movement
C. Civil Disobedience Movement
D. Quit India Movement
________________________________________
19 - With whose permission did the English set up their first factory in Surat?
A. Akbar
B. Jahangir
C. Shahjahan
D. Aurangzeb
________________________________________
20 - What is the correct chronological order in which the following kings ruled in India?
1. Bimbisara
2. Mahapadma Nanda
3. Kanishka I
4.Skandagupta
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1-2-3-4
B. 4-3-2-1
C. 2-3-4-1
D. 3-1-4-2
----------------------------------------------------------
21 - Which of the following is correct?
A. All the members of the RajyaSabha are elected by State Legislative Assemblies.
B. Only a member of the RajyaSabha can contest for the office of the Vice-President.
C. While a candidate to the LokSabha can contest from any state in India, a candidate to the RajyaSabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting.
D. The Constitution explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated member of the RajyaSabha to the post of a Minister.
________________________________________
22 - The maximum number of Anglo Indians who can be nominated to the Lok Sabha are?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 5
D. 4
________________________________________
23 - In the case of disagreement on a Bill, in the two Houses of Parliament?
A. A special Parliamentary Committee is formed to resolve the situation.
B. The Prime Minister intervenes.
C. The President casts a deciding vote.
D. A joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament is convened.
________________________________________
24 - Which of the following is not correct regarding a Money Bill?
A. It can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
B. It can be passed by the LokSabha even if the Rajya Saba rejects it.
C. It is deemed to have been passed by both Houses if it is not returned by the RajyaSabha within 14 days.
D. It requires the prior approval of the President.
________________________________________
25 - Which parliamentary committee in India is normally chaired by a prominent member of the Opposition?
A. Committee on Government Assurances
B. Estimates Committee
C. Privileges Committee
D. Public Accounts Committee
________________________________________
26 - The Union Territories get representation in?
A. LokSabha
B. RajyaSabha
C. Both Houses of Parliament
D. None of these
________________________________________
27 - In the case of a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament, the joint sitting is presided over by the?
A. President
B. Vice-President
C. Speaker of LokSabha
D. Member of the LokSabha specifically elected for the purpose
________________________________________
28 - Which of the following is not a Standing Committee of the Parliament?
A. Committee on Public Accounts
B. Estimates Committee
C. Committee on Welfare of SC's and ST's
D. Committee on Public Undertakings
________________________________________
29 - A bill for alteration of boundaries of states shall not be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendation of ?
A. The presiding officers of both Houses of Parliament
B. The legislatures of the states concerned
C. Supreme Court
D. President
________________________________________
30 - When can the Speaker exercise his right to vote in the House?
A. Whenever he desires
B. Whenever the House desires
C. Only in the event of equality of votes
D. Whenever his party directs
------------------------------------------------------------
31 - Which of the following states has the largest representation in the LokSabha?
A. Bihar
B. Maharashtra
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Uttar Pradesh
________________________________________
32 - In the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, who presides over the deliberations of the LokSabha?
A. Prime Minister
B. Home Minister
C. Oldest member of the House
D. One of the members of the House out of a panel of six persons nominated by the Speaker
________________________________________
33 - Which of the following non-members of Parliament has the right to address it?
A. Solicitor-General of India
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Attorney General of India
D. Chief Election Commissioner
________________________________________
34 - The Constitution of India does not mention the post of?
A. The Deputy Chairman of the RajyaSabha
B. The Deputy Prime Minister
C. The Deputy Speaker of the LokSabha
D. The Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assemblies
________________________________________
35 - Who administers the oath of office to the President?
A. Chief Justice of India
B. Speaker of LokSabha
C. Prime Minister
D. Vice President
________________________________________
36 - Criterion for a regional party to be recognized as a national party is?
A. To be recognized in at least 3 states
B. To be recognized in at least 4 states
C. To get l/10th of the seats in LokSabha
D. To get l/10th of the seats in the Parliament
________________________________________
37 - Who among the following decides whether particular bill is a Money Bill or not?
A. President
B. Speaker of LokSabha
C. Chairman of RajyaSabha
D. Finance Minister
________________________________________
38 - With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?
A. The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law
B. No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
C. Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation
D. No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
________________________________________
39 - Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extralegal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India?
1. The National Development Council
2. The Governor's Conference
3.Zonal Councils
4. Inter-State Council
A. 1 and 2
B. 1,3 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 only
________________________________________
40 - Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-half of the states?
1. Election of the President
2. Representation of states in Parliament
3.Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislature Council of a State
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
-------------------------------------------------------
41 - Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five year from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from this?
1. No Governor can be removed from office till the completion of his term
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
________________________________________
42 - Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention?
A. The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House
B. The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House
C. All the parts of India are to be represented in the Councils of Ministers
D. In the event of both the President and the' Vice-President demitting office simultaneously before the end of the tenure the Speaker of the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President
________________________________________
43 - Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the President but does not forum for his impeachment?
A. LokSabha
B. RajyaSabha
C. State Legislative Councils
D. State Legislative Assemblies
________________________________________
44 - If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament?
A. he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
B. he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
C. he can make statements only in the Upper House
D. he has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in as the Prime Minister
________________________________________
45 - Assertion (A): The reservation of 33% of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does not require Constitutional amendment.
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three percent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
________________________________________
46 - Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?
1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses
A. Neither 1 nor 2
B. Both 1 and 2
C. 1 alone
D. 2 alone
________________________________________
47 - Match List I with List II?
A. President of India 1. Secrecy of information
B. Judges of Supreme Court 2. Faithful Discharge of duties
C. Members of Parliament 3. Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution of India
D. Minister for the Union 4. Upholding the Constitution and the law
A. A-3, B-4, C-1 D-2
B. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
C. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
D. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
________________________________________
48 - Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection Act?
A. Second Schedule
B. Fifth Schedule
C. Eighth Schedule
D. Tenth Schedule
________________________________________
49 - The Constitution of India recognizes?
A. only religious minorities
B. only linguistic minorities
C. religious and linguistic minorities
D. religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities
________________________________________
50 - An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the?
1. LokSabha
2. RajyaSabha
3.State Legislature
4. President
A. 1 alone
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1 and 2
-----------------------------------------------------------
Click Here for SSC CGL TIER-1 EXAM 2016 PREVIOUS PAPERS AND ANSWER KEYS | SSC, स्नातक स्तरीय टाइर I & II के 48 पिछले प्रश्न पत्र हिन्दी एवं अंग्रेजी में यहाँ निशुल्क प्राप्त करें -
51 - Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
1. He is appointed by the President of India
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament
4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament
Which of these statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 3 and 4
________________________________________
52 - The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to?
A. distribution revenue between the Centre and the States
B. prepare the Annual Budget
C. advise the President on financial matters
D. allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments
________________________________________
53 - Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavor of every state to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?
A. Article 349
B. Article 350
C. Article 350-A
D. Article 351
________________________________________
54 - Which one of the following duties is not performed by Comptroller and Auditor general of India?
A. To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
B. To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts
C. To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts
D. To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer
________________________________________
55 - Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
A. It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states
B. It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
C. It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
D. It allocates seats in the Council of States
________________________________________
56 - Match List I with List II?
List I (Amendments to the Constitution):
A. The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991
B. The Constitution (Seventy-fifth Amendment) Act, 1994
C.The Constitution (Eighteenth Amendment) Act, 2000
D. The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000
List II:
1. Establishment of state level Rent Tribunals
2. No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh
3. Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or at other local level
4.Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission
5. According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi
A. A-5,B-1,C-4,D-2
B. A-1,B-5,C-3,D-4
C. A-5, B-1,C-3,D-4
D. A-1, B-5,C-4,D-2
-----------------------------------------------------
57- If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fifth
________________________________________
58 - Match List I with List II?
List I:
A. Article 54
B. Article 75
C. Article 155
D. Article 164
List II (content):
1. Election of the President of India
2. Appointment of the Prime Minister
3.Appointment of the Governor of a State
4.Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a State
5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies
A. A-1, B-2.C-3, D-4
B. A-1, B-2,C-4, D-5
C. A-2,B-1,C-3,D-5
D. A-2, B-1,C-4, D-3
________________________________________
59 - With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Planning Commission is accountable statement
B. President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session
C. The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years
D. National development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of ail the States
________________________________________
60 - The term of the LokSabha ?
A. cannot be extended under any circumstances
B. can be extended by six months at a time
C. can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
D. can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
---------------------------------------------------------
-
61 - Consider the following statements:
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution
2. The first joint sitting of LokSabha and RajyaSabha was held in the year 1961
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill
Which of these statements is correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1,2 and 3
________________________________________
62 - Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each house of the Indian Parliamentary separately by special majority?
A. Ordinary Bill
B. Money Bill
C. Finance Bill
D. Constitution Amendment Bill
________________________________________
63 - With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?
A. the Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law
B. No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
C. Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation.
D. No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
________________________________________
64 - Which one among the following commission was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India?
A. University Grants Commission
B. National Human Rights Commission
C. Election Commission
D. Central Vigilance Commission
________________________________________
65 - With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of LokSabha only.
2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
________________________________________
66 - With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
1. Fundamental rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India I is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the government of India?
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
________________________________________
67 - The system of proportional representation is used in the election of?
A. The President
B. speaker of LokSabha
C. Members of LokSabha
D. Members of State Assembly
________________________________________
68 - In the Panchayat Raj System, the 'PanchayatSamiti' is constituted at the?
A. Village level
B. Block level
C. District level
D. State level
________________________________________
69 - The idea of Fundamental Rights was adopted from?
A. England
B. America
C. Australia
D. France
________________________________________
70 - Which of the following is not correct?
A. The Supreme Command of the Defence Forces is vested in the President.
B. The three Chiefs of Staff (Army, Navy & Air Force) are under the direct control of the President.
C. The responsibility of National Defence rests with the Union Cabinet.
D. All important questions having a bearing on defence are decided by the Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister.
--------------------------------------------------------
71 - In India, which one of the following States has the largest inland saline wetland?
A. Gujarat
B. Haryana
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Rajasthan
________________________________________
72 - In which one of the following States has India's largest private sector sea port been commissioned recently?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Karnataka
C. Kerala
D. Tamil Nadu
________________________________________
73 - Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. Namibia
3. Brazil
4. Chile
Through which of the above does the Tropic of Capricorn pass?
A. 1 only
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
________________________________________
74 - Consider the following statements:
1. There are no east flowing rivers in Kerala.
2. There are no west flowing rivers in Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
________________________________________
75 - In India, the ports are categorized as major and non-major ports. Which one of the following is a non-major port?
A. Kochi (Cochin)
B. Dahej
C. Paradip
D. New Mangalore
________________________________________
76 - In which one of the following places is the Shompen tribe found?
A. Nilgiri Hills
B. Nicobar Islands
C. Spiti Valley
D. Lakshadweep islands
________________________________________
77 - In which state is the Buddhist site Tabo Monastery located?
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Sikkim
D. Uttarakhand
________________________________________
78 - Where is the famous Virupaksha temple located?
A. Bhadrachalam
B. Chidambaram
C. Hampi
D. Srikalahasti
________________________________________
79 - When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil. What is the main reason for this colour?
A. Abundance of magnesium
B. Accumulated humus
C. Presence of ferric oxides
D. Abundance of phosphates
________________________________________
80 - Which among the following has the world's largest reserves of Uranium?
A. Australia
B. Canada
C. Russian Federation
D. USA
-------------------------------------------------------
81 - Which is the difference between asteroids and comets?
1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material.
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
________________________________________
82 - Which one of the following can one come across if one travels through the Strait of Malacca?
A. Bali
B. Brunei
C. Java
D. Singapore
________________________________________
83- Which one of the following is the appropriate reason for considering the Gondwana rocks as most important of rock systems of India?
A. More than 90% of limestone reserves of India are found in them.
B. More than 90% of India’s coal reserves are found in them.
C. More than 90% of fertile black cotton soils are spread over them.
D. None of the reasons given above is appropriate in this context.
________________________________________
84 - Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (City to River)
A. Berlin: Rhine
B. London: Thames
C. New York: Hudson
D. Vienna: Danube
________________________________________
85 - Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (Dam / Lake to River)
A. GovindSagar - Satluj
B. Kolleru Lake - Krishna
C. Ukai Reservoir - Tapi
D. Wular Lake - Jhelum
________________________________________
86 - Which one of the following rivers does not originate in India?
A. Beas
B. Chonab
C. Ravi
D. Sutlej
________________________________________
87 - With reference to the mineral sources of India, consider the following pairs:
Mineral 90% National Sources in
1. Copper — Jharkhand
2.Nickel — Orissa
3. Tungsten — Kerala
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
________________________________________
88 - With reference to the river Luni, which one of the following statements is correct?
A. It flows into Gulf of Khambhat.
B. It flows into Gulf of Kuchchh.
C. It flows into Pakistan and merges with a tributary of Indus.
D. It is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kuchchh.
________________________________________
89 - Which one of the following pairs of countries fought wars over a region called Ogden?
A. Eritrea and Sudan
B. Ethiopia and Somalia
C. Kenya and Somalia
D. Ethiopia and Sudan
________________________________________
90 - Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A. Japan: Nikkei
B. Singapore: Shcomp
C. UK: FTSE
D. USA: Nasdaq
-----------------------------------------------------------
91 - A geographic region has the following distinct characteristics:
1. Warm and dry climate.
2. Mild and wet winter.
3. Evergreen oak trees.
The above features are the distinct characteristics of which one of the following regions?
A. Mediterranean
B. Eastern China
C. Central Asia
D. Atlantic coast of North America
________________________________________
92 - A layer in the Earth’s atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why?
1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to Earth.
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
________________________________________
93 - A state in India has the following characteristics:
1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.
Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Gujarat
C. Karnataka
D. Tamil Nadu
________________________________________
94 - Among the following States, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost of production, and can develop an export oriented industry in this field?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Uttar Pradesh
________________________________________
95 - As a result of their annual survey, the National Geographic Society and an international polling firm Globe Scan gave India top rank in Greendex 2009 score. What is this score?
A. It is a measure of efforts made by different countries in adopting technologies for reducing carbon footprint?
B. It is a measure of environmentally sustainable consumer behaviour in different countries.
C. It is an assessment of programmes / schemes undertaken by different countries for improving the conservation of natural resources.
D. It is an index showing the volume of carbon credits sold by different countries.
________________________________________
96 - At which one of the following places do two important rivers of India originate, while one of them flows towards north and merges with another important river flowing towards Bay of Bengal, the other one flows towards Arabian Sea?
A. Amarkantak
B. Badrinath
C. Mahabaleshwar
D. Nasik
________________________________________
97 - Between India and East Asia, the navigation-time and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the following?
1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
2. Opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
________________________________________
98 - Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttles are launched is located on the coast of?
A. Florida
B. Virginia
C. North Carolina
D. South Carolina
________________________________________
99 - Consider the following countries:
1. Switzerland
2. Malta
3. Bulgaria
Which of the above are members of European Union?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
________________________________________
100 - Consider the following pairs:
Protected Area Well Known for
1. Bhiterkanika, Orissa — Salt Water Crocodile
2.Desert National Park, Rajasthan — Great Indian Bustard
3.Eravikulam, Kerala — Hootak Gibbon
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3.
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