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Odisha PSC Civil Service Exam Pattern Details
Odisha
Civil Services Prelims Pattern
|
Papers |
Subjects |
Marks |
|
I |
General Studies I |
200 |
|
II |
General Studies II |
200 |
|
Total |
400 |
|
Odisha Civil Services Mains Pattern
|
Paper |
Subject |
Marks |
|
I |
Odia Language |
300 |
|
II |
English |
300 |
|
III |
English Essay |
300 |
|
IV |
General Studies I |
300 |
|
V |
General Studies II |
300 |
|
VI |
Optional Subjects |
300 |
|
VII |
300 |
|
|
VIII |
300 |
|
|
IX |
300 |
|
|
Total |
2700 |
|
|
Interview/Viva-Voice |
250 |
|
|
Grand Total |
3,350 |
|
OPSC Civil
Services Details-Free Job Alert
· OPSC
Selection Process for Civil Services includes Preliminary, Mains and Interview.
· Prelims
and Mains are Objective Type Tests.
· Civil
Services Selection is done totally for 3350 Marks.
· In the
Prelims Exam, General Study’s questions will be asked.
· Mains Exam
consists of Questions from different subjects like Odia, English, etc.
· For
complete latest Odisha PSC Civil Service Exam Syllabus and Test Pattern click
on the link below.
OPSC Civil Service Previous Papers Download Pdf
OPSC 2020 Solved Question Paper
1. Sagarmala Project is under which Ministry of Government of India?
(A) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
(B) Ministry of Sports
(C) Ministry of Defense
(D) Ministry of Surface Transport
Ans: (A)
Solution: The Sagarmala Project is a major initiative launched by the Indian government in 2015 to modernize the country’s ports and develop a sustainable maritime economy. The project aims to promote port-led development, facilitate port-led industrialization, and reduce logistics costs for domestic and international trade.
The project has identified a total of 415 projects across various sectors, including port modernization, new port development, port connectivity enhancement, port-linked industrialization, and coastal community development. These projects are expected to generate over 14 lakh jobs and mobilize more than Rs. 8 lakh crore in investment.
The key objectives of the Sagarmala Project include:
- Developing a modern and efficient port infrastructure to support the country’s growing trade and commerce.
- Enhancing port connectivity through road, rail, and waterways to reduce transportation costs and time.
- Promoting port-led industrialization by setting up manufacturing and logistics hubs near the ports.
- Improving the skill sets of the local workforce and providing employment opportunities to the coastal communities.
- Ensuring sustainable development of the coastal areas by promoting tourism, fisheries, and other allied activities.
Overall, the Sagarmala Project is expected to transform India’s maritime sector and make it globally competitive.
2. Which country has begun its two-year tenure as a non-permanent member of the UN Security Council ?
(A) Russia
(B) Pakistan
(C) India
(D) Bangladesh
Ans: (C)
Solution: India will sit the eighth time in the 15-nation UNSC for the 2021-22 term as a non-permanent member.
3. Who is the Chairman of State Commission for Backward Castes in Odisha ?
(A) Justice Raghunath Biswal
(B) Justice Bimal Prasad Das
(C) Justice Bjaya Krushna Patel
(D) Justice Jatindra Prasad Das
Ans: (A)
Solution: Justice Raghunath Biswal, former Orissa High Court judge was appointied as its chairman.
4. Which of the following is not correct?
(A) The first India-Japan Samvad Conference was held in 2015 at Bodh Gaya, India
(B) The Samvad Conference revolves around the need to build the future of Asia under the positive influence of traditions of non-violence and democracy in Asia
(C) In the Sixth Samvad Conference PM Mr. Modi proposed to establish a library of traditional Buddhist literature and scriptures
(D) Samvad Conference is being held every year since 2015 between India and Thailand
The first Samvad Conference was organised in New Delhi and at Bodh Gaya in 2015.
Ans: (D)
Solution: The first Samvad Conference was organised in New Delhi and at Bodh Gaya in 2015.
5. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Heads of State Summit was held on 10th November, 2020 in the video conference format. The Summit was hosted by:
(A) Russia
(B) India
(C) Kazakhstan
(D) Uzbekistan
Ans: (A)
Solution: 20th Summit of SCO Council of Heads of State was held on November 10, 2020 (in Video Conference Format). The Meeting was chaired by the President of the Russian Federation Mr. Vladimir Putin.
6. Which country has become the sixth member of the ‘Five Eyes’ Intelligence network ?
(A) Japan
(B) Nepal
(C) India
(D) China
Ans: (A)
Solution: The Five Eyes is an intelligence-sharing alliance that presently constitutes the US, the United Kingdom, Australia, Canada, and New Zealand and now Japan.
7. What was the theme of the World Sustainable Development Summit, 2020?
(A) Towards 2030 Goals: Making the Decade Count
(B) Sustainable Energy Across the Word
(C) Attaining SDG before 2030
(D) Energy and Resources for all
Ans: (A)
Solution: World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) 2020 is the annual flagship event of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) which was held during 29-31 January 2020 in New Delhi, India, under the overarching theme, ‘Towards 2030 Goals: Making the Decade Count’.
8. Who, among the following persons of Odisha, is the Padma Vibhushan Awardee for 2021 for distinguished service in the field of Arts ?
(A) Shanti Devi
(B) Sudarshan Pattanaik
(C) Rajat Kumar Kar
(D) Sudarshan Sahoo
Ans: (D)
Solution: Sudarshan Sahoo, renowned sculptor from Odisha, was conferred with the Padma Vibhushan, the second-highest civilian award of the country, for his distinguished work in the field of Art.
9. The recipient of the Atibadi Jagannath Das Literary Award awarded by the Sahitya Academy of Odisha for 2020 is:
(A) Madhusudan Pati
(B) Binapani Mohanty
(C) Rama Chandra Behera
(D) Rama Kanta Rath
Ans: (C)
Solution: Atibadi Jagannath Das Samman is a literary award awarded by Odisha Sahitya Academy to an Odia language litterateur for lifetime contribution to Odia literature.
10. The Fresh Water Lake built by India near its Research Station ‘Maitri’ in the Antarctica is known as:
(A) Bharati
(B) Dakshin Gangotri
(C) Priyadarshini
(D) Dakshin Manasarovar
Ans: (C)
Solution: Freshwater is provided through a freshwater lake named Lake Priyadarshini, in front of Maitri.
11. The Mars Perseverance Rover that landed on the Mars on 18th February, 2021 was launched by:
(A) The Republic of Russia
(B) The United States of America
(C) The People’s Republic of China
(D) The Republic of India
Ans: (B)
Solution: On Feb. 18, 2021, NASA’s Mars Perseverance rover makes its final descent to the Red Planet.
12. The State of Jammu and Kashmir was made an Union Territory of India with effect from:
(A) 26th January, 2019
(B) 5th August, 2019
(C) 15th September, 2019
(D) 31st October, 2019
Ans: (D)
Solution: A resolution to repeal Article 370 was passed by both the houses of the Parliament of India in August 2019. At the same time, a reorganisation act was also passed, which would reconstitute the state into two union territories, Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh. The reorganisation took effect from 31 October 2019.
13. The Protest Movement organised at Shaheen Baug in Delhi from 14th December, 2019 to 24th March, 2020 was against:
(A) The Jammu and Kashmir Re-organization Act, 2019
(B) The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019
(C) The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019
(D) The Reservation (for Economicaly Weaker Sections of Citizens) Amendment Act, 2019
Ans: (C)
Solution: Shaheen Bagh women protesters blocking a major road (Road 13A GD Birla Marg, Shaheen Bagh – Kalindi Kunj area) in New Delhi.It was a peaceful sit-in protest in Delhi, India, that began on 15 December 2019 and lasted until 24 March 2020.
14. The Military Skirmishes that occurred between China and India since 5th May, 2020 in the Galwan Valley involved territorial disputes over:
(A) The Pangong Lake Area
(B) The Aksai-Chin Area
(C) The Kargil Area
(D) The Naku-La PassArea
Ans: (A)
Solution: Starting in April 2020, China amassed a large number of troops and armaments along the 3,488 km disputed Line of Actual Control (LAC) leading to stand-offs and skirmishes at Galwan Valley, Pangong Tso (lake), Gogra-Hot Springs and other areas.
15. What was the capital of Vatsa Mahajanapada ?
(A) Rajghat
(B) Kausambi
(C) Ujayini
(D) Ahichchhatra
Ans: (B)
Solution: Vatsa is situated on the banks of river Yamuna which was famous for its fine cotton textiles. The capital Kaushambi is situated at the confluence of the Ganga and Yamuna, near Prayagraj.
16. Which of the following sources indicate that the last Mauryan ruler Brihdarth was assassinated by Pushyamitra?
(A) Inscriptions
(B) Gargi Samhita
(C) Puranas
(D) Harshcharita
Ans: (D)
17. Who among the Gupta Rulers was first to bear higher political title of Maharajadhiraja ?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta I
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Chandragupta lI
Ans: (D)
18. Who overthrow the Rashtrakutas in 973 AD?
(A) Taila lI of Westerm Chalukya
(B) Rajendra 1 of Chola
(C) Parantaka 1 of Chola
(D) None of these
Ans: (B)
19. Which of the following Mughal sources was translated into Persian by Painda Khan ?
(A) Baburmama
(B) Humayun Namah
(C) Khulasat ul Akhbar
(D) Tankh l salatim l Afghana
Ans: (C)
Solution: Khulasat ul Akhbar is a historical Persian text compiled by a Mughal courtier named Munshi Sujan Rae Bhandari during the reign of Mughal emperor Aurangzeb. Painda Khan, who was a prominent Afghan noble and military commander in the Mughal Empire, is known to have translated this work from Persian into Pashto. The book contains information about the Mughal emperors and their reigns, as well as details about important events and personalities of the time.
20. Who was the author of Tankh I Dauai?
(A) Niamatullah
(B) Abdullah
(C) Ahmad Yadgar
(D) Abul Fazl
Ans: (B)
Solution: Tarikh-i-Daudi written by Abdullah in 1575 -76 AD deals with the history of the Afghan rulers from Bahlol Lodi of Delhi to daud khan karrani, the last Afghan sultan of Bengal. The book was dedicated to Daud Karrani who was defeated in the battle of rajmahal in 1576 by Khan Jahan, the general of Akbar.
21. Who had prepared the proclamation known as mahzar issued in September, 1579?
(A) Abul Fazi
(B) Faizi
(C) Sheikh Mubarak
(D) Sheikh Abdun Nabi
Ans: (A)
Solution: The Mahzar was a proclamation issued by Akbar the Great, the Mughal Emperor, in September 1579. It was prepared by the court historian Abu’l Fazl, who was one of Akbar’s closest advisors and the author of the Akbarnama, a historical account of Akbar’s reign.
The Mahzar was a significant document in the history of the Mughal Empire, as it proclaimed Akbar’s policy of religious tolerance and his desire to create a syncretic religion that blended elements of Islam, Hinduism, and other faiths. The proclamation was intended to promote peace and harmony among the various religious communities in the empire and to counter the influence of the conservative Muslim ulama who opposed Akbar’s religious reforms.
22. What was the term used for the religious officer in Mughal Administration?
(A) Mir Saman
(B) Muhtasib
(C) Mir I Atish
(D) Mir I Bahr
Ans: (B)
Solution: The term used for the religious officer in Mughal Administration was Muhtasib. The Muhtasib was responsible for ensuring the enforcement of Islamic moral and social codes, as well as monitoring and regulating the markets and commercial activities.
They were also responsible for maintaining public hygiene, preventing gambling, prostitution, and other vices. The Muhtasib was appointed by the Mughal Emperor and held an important position in the Mughal court hierarchy.
23. Which of the following land revenue settlement was first to have concluded with the village community?
(A) Permanent Settlement
(B) Mahalwari Settlement
(C) Ryotwari Settlement
(D) None of these
Ans: (B)
Solution: Zamindari System /Permanent Settlement was introduced by Cornwallis in 1793 in Bengal. Zamindars were recognized as owner of the lands and were given the rights to collect the rent from the peasants. The realized amount would be divided into 11 parts. 1/11 of the share belongs to
Zamindars and 10/11 of the share belongs to East India Company.
Ryotwari System was introduced by Thomas Munro in 1820 in Madras, Bombay, parts of Assam and Coorgh. In Ryotwari System the ownership rights were handed over to the peasants. British Government collected taxes directly from the peasants. The revenue rates of Ryotwari System were 50% where the lands were dry and 60% in irrigated land.
Mahalwari system was introduced in 1833 during the period of William Bentick in Area, Central Province, North-West Frontier, Agra, Punjab, Gangetic Valley, etc. of British India. The Mahalwari system had many provisions of both the Zamindari System and Ryotwari System. In this system, the land was divided into Mahals. Each Mahal comprises one or more villages. Ownership rights were with the peasants. The villages committee was held responsible for collection of the taxes.
24. British concluded Treaty of Surat in 1775 with:
(A) Narayan Rao
(B) Madhav Rao
(C) Raghunath Rao
(D) Vinayak Rao
Ans: (C)
Solution: The Treaty of Surat (6 March 1775) was a treaty by which Raghunathrao, one of the claimants to the throne of the Peshwa, agreed to cede Salsette and Bassein Fort to the English, in consideration of being himself restored to Poona. The military operations that followed are known as the First Anglo-Maratha War.
25. What was the title of the first newspaper published by James Augustus Hickey?
(A) The Bengal Journal
(B) The Calcutta Chronicle
(C) The Madras Courier
(D) The Bengal Gazette
Ans: (D)
Solution: Bengal Gazette was the first English-language newspaper published on the Indian subcontinent. It was founded in Calcutta by Irishman James Augustus Hicky in 1779.
26. Who compared the Salt March of Gandhi to Napoleon’s march to Paris on his return from Elba ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Subhash Chandra Bose
C) Motilal Nehru
(D) Rabindranath Tagore
Ans: (B)
27. Who founded the Deccan Educational Society?
(A) Ranade
(B) G K. Gokhale
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) None of them
Ans: (D)
Solution: The Deccan Education Society (DES) was established in 1884 by Vishnushastri Chiplunkar, Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Gopal Ganesh Agarkar.
28. Who was the Chairman of the First Famine Commission in 1880?
(A) Sir Richard Strachey
(B) Sir Mac Donnel
(C) J.B. Lyall
(D) T. Morrisson
Ans: (A)
Solution: Richard Strachey commission in 1880 was created to develop a General strategy and principles to deal with the famines.
29. The Middle Himalayan Range originated in:
(A) Eocene
(B) Miocene
(C) Oligocene
(D) Pliocene
Ans: (B)
Solution: It is between the Shiwaliks in the south and the Greater Himalayas in the north.
30. Which of the following is not an example of a Block mountain?
(A) Vosjes Mountain
(B) Western Ghats Mountain
(C) Salt Range
(D) Sierra Nevada
Ans: (A)
Solution: Block mountains, also known as fault-block mountains, are formed when large blocks of the Earth’s crust are uplifted or tilted along faults. They are characterized by steep, rugged slopes on one side and gentler slopes on the other.
Out of the given options, the Vosjes Mountain is not a recognized mountain range or block mountain. It may be a fictitious or lesser-known name. The other options, Western Ghats Mountain, Salt Range, and Sierra Nevada, are well-known examples of block mountains in different parts of the world.
31. Which of the following tributaries of Indus river emerges from the Pir Panjal Range?
(A) Satuj
(B) Ravi
(C) Chenab
(D) Jhelum
Ans: (B) Ravi
Solution: The Ravi River is one of the tributaries of the Indus River that emerges from the Pir Panjal Range. The Pir Panjal Range is located in the northern part of the Indian subcontinent and forms part of the Himalayas. The Ravi River originates from the Bara Bhangal area in Himachal Pradesh, India, which is within the Pir Panjal Range, and it eventually flows into the Indus River in Pakistan.
32. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Stack- Sea Waves
(B) Bajada – Winds
(C) Kame- Rivers
(D) Lappies-Ground Water
Ans: (D) Lappies – Ground Water
The term “Lappies” is not associated with groundwater.
(A) Stack – Sea Waves: A stack is a geological landform created by the erosion of sea waves, typically found along coastlines.
(B) Bajada – Winds: A bajada refers to a series of coalescing alluvial fans formed by the deposition of sediments carried by water and not winds.
(C) Kame – Rivers: A kame is a landform that is created by the deposition of sediments by glacial meltwater. It is often associated with glaciers and not rivers.
33. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Benguela Current-South Atlantic
(B) Irminger Current-North Pacific
(C) Peru Current- South Pacific
(D) Mozambique Current- Indian Ocean
Ans: (B) Irminger Current
Solution: Irminger Current is a warm ocean current that flows northward along the east coast of Greenland and then turns eastward into the Irminger Sea, which is part of the North Atlantic Ocean.
34. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Tulbul Project-Jhelum River
(B) Koteshwar Project-Tapti River
(C) Dulhasti Project-Chenab River
(D) Sardar Sarovar Project-Narmada River
Ans: (B) Koteshwar Project – Tapti River
The Koteshwar Project is not associated with the Tapti River. The Koteshwar Project is a hydropower project located on the Bhagirathi River in Uttarakhand, India. It is part of the Tehri Hydroelectric Complex. The Tapti River, on the other hand, is a river that flows through central India, primarily in the states of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat.
The other options are correctly matched:
(A) Tulbul Project – Jhelum River: The Tulbul Project, also known as the Wular Lake Project, is located on the Jhelum River in Jammu and Kashmir.
(C) Dulhasti Project – Chenab River: The Dulhasti Project is a hydroelectric power project situated on the Chenab River in Jammu and Kashmir, India.
(D) Sardar Sarovar Project – Narmada River: The Sardar Sarovar Project is a major multipurpose river valley project located on the Narmada River in Gujarat, India.
35. Which of the following human races has woolly hairs?
(A) Negroid
(B) Mangoloid
(C) Caucasoid
(D) Australoid
Ans: (A)
Solution: The term “Negroid” has been historically used to categorize people of African descent, who are often characterized by their dark skin and coiled or woolly hair.
36. In which of the following demographic transition stages, the intensive subsistence farming is prevalent?
(A) Stage- I
(B) Stage-II
(C) Stage-III
(D) Stage-IV
Ans: (A)
Solution: Stage-I of the demographic transition is characterized by high birth rates and high death rates. The economy primarily relies on agriculture, and most of the population is engaged in subsistence farming.
Intensive subsistence farming refers to a form of farming where a high level of labor and inputs is required to obtain a sufficient yield from a small area of land. This type of farming is often practiced in regions with limited arable land and technological advancements.
37. It is 12 noon at Greenwich. What will be the time at a place situated at 60 East Longitude ?
(A) 2 am
(B) 2 pm
(C) 4 am
(D) 4 pm
Ans: (D)
Solution: To determine the time at a place situated at a specific longitude, we need to consider the time difference for each degree of longitude. Generally, the Earth rotates 360 degrees in 24 hours, which means that each hour corresponds to 15 degrees of longitude.
In this case, the place is situated at 60 degrees East longitude, which is four hours ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) at 0 degrees longitude.
Since it is 12 noon at Greenwich, we need to add four hours to calculate the time at the place situated at 60 degrees East longitude.
Therefore, the correct answer is: (D) 4 pm
The time at a place situated at 60 degrees East longitude would be 4 pm when it is 12 noon at Greenwich.
38. What is the significance of Dakshin Gangotri?
(A) It is a research station near South Gangotri glacier over Himalayas
(B) It is a research station south of river Ganga near Rishikesh
(C) It is a scientific base station in Antarctica
(D) It is a scientific base station at South Pole
Ans: (C)
Solution: Dakshin Gangotri was indeed a scientific base station established by India in Antarctica. It was the first research station set up by India in Antarctica and was operational from 1983 to 1990. Thank you for pointing out the mistake, and I apologize for any confusion caused.
39. In India, El Nino is very often associated with
(A) A good monsoon weather with heavy rain and good yield of crops
(B) A bad monsoon weather with low rain and crop failure
(C) A bad monsoon weather with no rain and crop failure
(D) A normal monsoon weather with no adverse effect on crops
Ans: (B)
Solution: In India, El Nino is often linked with bad monsoon weather and low rainfall, which can lead to crop failure. It is a weather pattern in the Pacific Ocean that affects global climate. During El Nino, the normal monsoon rainfall patterns in India get disrupted, resulting in less rain during the monsoon season.
This can cause drought-like conditions and have a negative impact on agriculture, leading to lower crop yields and possible crop failure. So, when El Nino occurs, it often brings unfavorable monsoon weather and can harm crop production in India.
40. In the atmosphere which of the following carries the ozone layer?
(A) Exosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans: (C)
Solution: The ozone layer is a region within the Earth’s atmosphere, specifically in the stratosphere. It is situated approximately 10 to 50 kilometers above the Earth’s surface.
The ozone layer contains a higher concentration of ozone (O3) compared to other parts of the atmosphere. It plays a crucial role in absorbing a significant portion of the sun’s ultraviolet (UV) radiation, which helps protect life on Earth from harmful UV rays. So, the correct answer is (C) Stratosphere.
The stratosphere up to a height of 50 km from the earth’s surface is the second layer of the atmosphere found above the troposphere.
41. Which of the following is a predominant species of the deciduous forests of Odisha?
(A) Mahogany
(B) Red wood
(C) Sal
(D) Teak
Ans: (C)
Solution: Sal is a predominant species of deciduous forests in Odisha and various other regions in India. It is a large, evergreen tree that is highly valued for its timber and has significant ecological importance. Sal forests are known for their rich biodiversity and provide habitat for various flora and fauna. So, the correct answer is (C) Sal.
42. Slash and burn cultivation relates to which of the following?
(A) Intensive cultivation
(B) Extensive cultivation
(C) Subsistence agriculture
(D) Commercial agriculture
Ans:(C)
Solution: Slash and burn cultivation, also known as shifting cultivation, is a traditional agricultural practice primarily associated with subsistence farming. It involves cutting down and burning vegetation in a plot of land, followed by the cultivation of crops in the nutrient-rich ashes.
After a few years, when the soil fertility decreases, the farmers move on to a new plot of land and repeat the process. This cycle allows the previously cultivated land to regenerate and regain its fertility.
Slash and burn cultivation is typically practiced by indigenous or rural communities for their own sustenance rather than for commercial purposes, making it a form of subsistence agriculture. So, the correct answer is (C) Subsistence agriculture.
43. The ideal of Welfare State in Indian Constitution is enshrined in its:
(A) Preamble
(B) Directive Principle’s of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Seventh Schedule
Ans: (B)
Solution: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are a set of guidelines or principles included in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. They provide a framework for the government to work towards social, economic, and political justice and establish a welfare state in India. The DPSPs outline the objectives that the state should strive to achieve, including promoting the welfare of the people, ensuring social justice, providing equal opportunities, protecting the interests of marginalized sections of society, and more.
While the DPSPs are not legally enforceable, they serve as guiding principles for the government to formulate policies and make laws that promote the welfare of the people.
44. Who, as per the provisions of the Constitution, who declares an area as a Scheduled Area ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President of India
(C) Governor
(D) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Ans: (B)
Solution: The President of India has the power to declare an area as a Scheduled Area. This provision is mentioned in Article 244(1) of the Indian Constitution. The declaration of an area as a Scheduled Area is based on the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned state, who in turn seeks advice from the Tribal Advisory Council established for that state. The Scheduled Areas are designated to protect the rights and promote the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes (STs) residing in those areas.
45. The Concurrent List in the Constitution of India was adopted from:
(A) Switzerland
(B) Australia
(C) Canada
(D) France
Ans: (B)
Solution: The concept of the Concurrent List, where both the central and state governments have the power to legislate on certain subjects, was borrowed from the Constitution of Australia. In Australia, they have a similar division of powers between the federal government and the state governments, with certain subjects falling within the concurrent jurisdiction.
In India, the Concurrent List is provided in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution and includes subjects on which both the Union (central) and state governments can make laws.
46. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes power between the Union and the States?
(A) First Schedule
(B) Second Schedule
(C) Sixth Schedule
(D) Seventh Schedule
Ans: (D)
Solution: The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. These lists enumerate subjects on which the Union (central) government, the State governments, and both governments can legislate, respectively. The distribution of powers between the Union and the States is specified in this schedule, ensuring a division of legislative authority.
47. Mandamus is a writ issued by the Apex Court:
(A) Asking a public official or any authority to preform legal duties
(B) Enquiring into the legality of claim of any person to public office
(C) Asking a person who has detained any other persons to appear before a court
(D) Against any lower court not to do any act excess of their jurisdiction
Ans: (A)
Solution: Mandamus is a legal remedy in the form of a writ that is issued by a higher court, such as the Apex Court (Supreme Court in India), directing a public official or authority to perform their legal duties or to correct an abuse of power. It is a command issued by the court to ensure that a public official or authority fulfills their obligations and carries out their responsibilities in accordance with the law.
48. Any money bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without the consent of the:
(A) President of India
(B) Union Finance Minister
(C) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Ans: (A)
Solution: According to Article 117 of the Indian Constitution, a money bill can only be introduced in the Parliament with the prior consent of the President of India. The President’s consent is necessary before such a bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha). The Speaker of the Lok Sabha does play a role in certifying a bill as a money bill, but the consent of the President is required for its introduction. Once the President gives consent, the bill can be introduced in the Parliament for further consideration.
49. The first state in India which was created on linguistic basis :
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
Ans: (A)
Solution: Andhra Pradesh was the first state in India to be created on a linguistic basis. It was formed on 1st October 1953, separating from the Madras Presidency. The demand for a separate state for Telugu-speaking people in the Madras Presidency led to the creation of Andhra Pradesh. This event marked an important milestone in the linguistic reorganization of states in India, setting a precedent for the formation of other states based on language.
50. The Right to Education for all between 6 and 14 years of age has been included as a Fundamental Right in the year:
(A) 1998
(B) 2001
(C) 2002
(D) 2000
Ans: (C)
Solution: The Right to Education (RTE) Act, which guarantees free and compulsory education to all children between the ages of 6 and 14, was enacted by the Parliament of India in 2002.
51. One of the following now is not a Department of Finance Ministry:
(A) Department of Economic Affairs
(B) Department of Expenditure
(C) Department of Revenue
(D) Department of Banking Affairs
Ans: (D)
Solution: The Department of Banking Affairs is not one of the departments under the Finance Ministry in India.
52. The All India Whips Conference is organised by:
(A) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(B) Chief Ministers of States
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Vice-President of India
Ans: (A)
Solution: This Conference is being organized by the Union Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (MoPA) and the Government of Rajasthan.
53. The purpose of Uniform Civil Code incorporated in Article 44 of Indian Constitution is for:
(A) National Security
(B) Cultural Integration
(C) National Unity
(D) Welfare of Minorities
Ans: (B)
Solution: The purpose of the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) incorporated in Article 44 of the Indian Constitution is primarily for cultural integration. The idea behind the UCC is to create a common set of civil laws for all citizens of India, irrespective of their religion or personal beliefs. This aims to promote equality and social justice by ensuring that all individuals are subject to the same laws and have equal rights and protections.
54. Policy as Rational choice in competitive situation is:
(A) Game Theory
(B) Rational Theory
(C) Group Theory
(D) Systems Theory
Ans: (A)
Solution: Policy as rational choice in a competitive situation is often analyzed using Game Theory. Game Theory is a mathematical framework used to study the strategic interactions between multiple decision-makers, known as players, in situations where the outcome of one player’s decision depends on the decisions made by other players. It provides a systematic way to model and analyze decision-making in competitive scenarios, considering factors such as the players’ preferences, strategies, and payoffs.
55. Keeping control over delegated legislation is the power of:
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Supreme Court
Ans: (D)
Solution: Keeping control over delegated legislation is the power of the Supreme Court in India. Delegated legislation refers to the power given by the legislature to the executive branch to make laws or regulations within the framework set by the primary legislation. This allows the executive branch to fill in the details and make specific rules and regulations to implement the broader provisions of the law.
56. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises of:
(A) Prime Minister and all Chief Ministers
(B) Chief Ministers and Experts and Specialists
(C) All Chief Ministers and Lieutenant Governors
(D) Chief Ministers and Union Finance Minister
Ans: (A)
The Governing Council of NITI Aayog, which is the policy think tank of the Government of India, comprises the Prime Minister and all Chief Ministers of the states and union territories (UTs) with legislatures. This council is responsible for providing a platform for cooperative federalism and facilitating the exchange of ideas and views on various developmental issues and policies.
57. The Chairman of Zonal Council in India is:
(A) Finance Minister
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha .
(C) Union Home Minister
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (C)
Solution: The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956.Five Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956.The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils. The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time.
58. For each country, Global Hunger Index Values are determined by which of the following indicators?
(1) Under Nourishment
(2) Child Mortality
(3) Child Stunting
(4) Child Wasting
The correct answer is:
(A) (1), (2) and (4)
(B) (2), (3) and (4)
(C) (3) and (4)
(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans: (D)
Solution: GHI scores are calculated using a three-step process that draws on available data from various sources to capture the multidimensional nature of hunger.
First, for each country, values are determined for four indicators:
UNDERNOURISHMENT: the share of the population that is undernourished (that is, whose caloric intake is insufficient);
CHILD WASTING: the share of children under the age of five who are wasted (that is, who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute under nutrition);
CHILD STUNTING: the share of children under the age of five who are stunted (that is, who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic under nutrition); and
CHILD MORTALITY: the mortality rate of children under the age of five (in part, a reflection of the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments).
59. The reserve held by commercial banks over and above the statutory minimum with the RBI are called:
(A) Cash Reserve
(B) Deposit Reserve
(C) Monetary Reserve
(D) Excess Reserve
Ans: (D)
Solution: The reserve held by commercial banks over and above the statutory minimum requirement with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is referred to as “Excess Reserve.” Commercial banks are required to maintain a certain portion of their deposits as reserves as mandated by the RBI. This minimum reserve requirement is known as the Statutory Reserve or Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).
However, banks often hold reserves in excess of the required minimum to meet unexpected withdrawals, liquidity needs, or regulatory requirements. These additional reserves held by commercial banks are called Excess Reserves. Banks have the flexibility to maintain excess reserves with the RBI, which can be used for various purposes such as managing liquidity, meeting unexpected demands, or earning interest on excess funds.
60. Which of the following promoted the concept of Self Help Groups (SHGs) for financing the poor?
(A) NITI Aayog
(B) RBI
(C) NABARD
(D) Union Ministry of Labour
Ans: (D)
Solution: NABARD developed the model of Self Help Group for financing the poor.
61. Which of the following is not a financial inclusion scheme?
(A) Pradhan Mantri Jandhan Yojana
(B) Suraksha Bandhan Scheme
(C) Atal Pension Yojana
(D) HRIDAY
Ans: (D)
Solution: HRIDAY (Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana) is not a financial inclusion scheme. It is a scheme launched by the Government of India with the objective of preserving and revitalizing the heritage cities in the country.
On the other hand, the other options listed are financial inclusion schemes in India:
(A) Pradhan Mantri Jandhan Yojana: This scheme aims to provide universal access to banking facilities, including basic savings bank accounts, remittance services, and access to credit and insurance, to all households in India.
(B) Suraksha Bandhan Scheme: This scheme is a social security initiative by the Government of West Bengal in India. It involves providing life insurance coverage to the female head of households in the state.
(C) Atal Pension Yojana: This scheme focuses on providing a pension to workers in the unorganized sector. It encourages them to voluntarily save for their retirement by contributing to a pension account during their working years.
These schemes are designed to promote financial inclusion by providing access to banking services, insurance coverage, and social security benefits to underserved sections of the population.
62. Sishu, Kishore and Tarun are the schemes of:
(A) Industrial Development Bank of India
(B) Micro Units Development and Reference Agency Ltd
(C) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(D) Regional Rural Banks
Ans: (C)
Solution: Sishu, Kishore, and Tarun are the three categories of loans under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY), which is a scheme implemented by the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
Under PMMY, SIDBI provides financial support to micro and small enterprises (MSEs) in India. The scheme aims to promote entrepreneurship and provide access to credit for small businesses. The loans are categorized based on the stage of growth and funding requirements of the businesses:
- Sishu: This category provides loans up to Rs. 50,000 to startups and early-stage businesses.
- Kishore: This category offers loans ranging from Rs. 50,001 to Rs. 5 lakh to established businesses for their expansion and growth.
- Tarun: This category provides loans ranging from Rs. 5,00,001 to Rs. 10 lakh to established businesses for further expansion and diversification.
These loan categories under PMMY help micro and small businesses access affordable credit and contribute to the growth and development of the Indian economy.
63. Which of the following indicators is not used to calculate Human Development Index ?
(A) Education
(B) Per Capita Income
(C) Life Expectancy
(D) Social Inequality
Ans: (D)
Solution: The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index that measures the average achievements in three dimensions of human development: education, income, and health. The indicators used to calculate the HDI are:
(A) Education: This indicator includes factors such as mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling.
(B) Per Capita Income: This indicator is measured using Gross National Income (GNI) per capita.
(C) Life Expectancy: This indicator represents the average life expectancy at birth.
These three indicators are combined to calculate the HDI, which provides a measure of overall human development and well-being in a country. However, social inequality is not directly used as an indicator in the calculation of the HDI. While social inequality is an important aspect to consider in assessing human development, it is not part of the specific indicators used in the HDI calculation.
64. Which of the following Committees recommended a poverty line based on nutritional requirements exclusively?
(A) Lakdawala Committee
(B) Rangarajan Committee
(C) Alagh Committee
(D) Tendulkar Committee
Ans: (A)
Solution: The Lakdawala Committee, officially known as the Expert Group on Estimation of Proportion and Number of Poor, was appointed by the Government of India in 1993. The committee was headed by D.T. Lakdawala and was tasked with reviewing and revising the methodology for estimating poverty in India.
The Lakdawala Committee recommended a poverty line based on nutritional requirements exclusively. It proposed a poverty line that took into account the minimum food requirements to meet the daily calorie intake and recommended a corresponding level of income required to afford that food. This approach focused on ensuring that individuals or households had access to adequate nutrition to meet their basic needs.
The committee’s recommendations played a significant role in shaping the methodology and approach used to estimate poverty and determine poverty lines in India.
65. The first sustainable development goal aims to eradicate extreme poverty. How does the U. N. currently measure extreme poverty?
(A) People who are unemployed and unable to access welfare benefits from the state
(B) People who live on less than $5 a day.
(C) People who claim to be living in poverty
(D) People who live on less than $1.25 a day
Ans: (D)
Solution: The United Nations currently measures extreme poverty by using the international poverty line of living on less than $1.25 a day. This poverty line is based on the concept of absolute poverty and represents the minimum level of income required to meet basic human needs, such as food, shelter, and healthcare, in many developing countries.
The $1.25-a-day threshold is often referred to as the international poverty line or the extreme poverty line. It is used as a benchmark to estimate the number of people living in extreme poverty globally and track progress towards eradicating extreme poverty, which is the first Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) set by the United Nations.
It is important to note that poverty measurement is a complex issue, and different poverty lines and indicators may be used for specific contexts or regions. However, the $1.25-a-day threshold is widely recognized as a commonly used international standard for measuring extreme poverty.
66. Which is the highest allocation Ministry in Budget 2021-22?
(A) Ministry of Defence
(B) Ministry of Education
(C) Ministry of Railway
(D) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Ans: (A)
Solution: In the Budget 2021-22, the Ministry of Defence received the highest allocation among the options provided. The Ministry of Defence is responsible for the country’s defense and security and is allocated a significant portion of the budget to meet defense-related expenses, including modernization, procurement of equipment, infrastructure development, and personnel costs.
While the specific budget allocations may vary each year, defense expenditure is typically one of the highest allocations in the budget due to the strategic importance of national security and defense preparedness.
67. Central Government has unveiled a new series of Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-/W) with as the base year.
(A) 2011
(B) 2016
(C) 2017
(D) 2018
Ans: (D)
Solution: The Central Government of India unveiled a new series of Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) with 2018 as the base year. The CPI-IW is an important economic indicator that measures changes in the average prices of a basket of goods and services consumed by industrial workers in India. It is widely used for assessing inflation and calculating dearness allowances for employees in the organized sector.
The base year is periodically updated to reflect changes in consumption patterns and price levels. In this case, the new series with 2018 as the base year was introduced to provide more accurate and relevant information on price movements and inflation for industrial workers in India.
68. The contribution of the primary sector to GDP of lndia is:
(A) Increasing over the years
(B) Remaining the same over the years
(C) Decreasing over the years
(D) At times increasing and at times decreasing over the years
Ans: (C)
Solution: The contribution of the primary sector to the GDP of India has been decreasing over the years. The primary sector includes activities related to agriculture, forestry, fishing, and mining. Historically, the primary sector used to be the largest contributor to India’s GDP. However, as the economy has diversified and industrialization and services sectors have expanded, the relative importance of the primary sector has declined.
The secondary sector, which includes manufacturing and construction, and the tertiary sector, which includes services, have gained prominence and have become the major contributors to India’s GDP. This shift in the structure of the economy is a result of various factors, including urbanization, technological advancements, and changing patterns of consumption and employment.
It is important to note that the contribution of the primary sector may still vary from year to year based on factors such as monsoon conditions, agricultural productivity, and global commodity prices. However, the long-term trend indicates a decreasing share of the primary sector in India’s GDP.
69. Robin Hood effect is related to which of the following?
(A) Income and consumption
(B) Income generation
(C) Income redistribution
(D) Income taxation
Ans: (C)
Solution: The Robin Hood effect is the redistribution of wealth from the rich to the poor.
70. Out of the four concepts of money Supply used in India, M1, M2, M3, and M4. the Post Office Savings are included in:
(A) M1, only
(B) M3 and M4, only
(C) M4 only
(D) M2 and M4, only
Ans: (D)
Solution: In the context of money supply concepts used in India, Post Office Savings are included in M2 and M4. Let’s briefly explain the different concepts of money supply:
- M1: It represents the narrowest measure of money supply and includes currency notes and coins in circulation, demand deposits with commercial banks, and other deposits that are immediately available for making payments.
- M2: It includes all components of M1 and adds savings deposits with post offices, time deposits with commercial banks, and certificates of deposit.
- M3: It includes all components of M2 and adds the net time deposits of banks, which are deposits with a maturity period of more than one year.
- M4: It includes all components of M3 and adds the total deposits of non-banking financial companies (NBFCs).
Since Post Office Savings are included in both M2 and M4, the correct answer is (D) M2 and M4, only.
71. The insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (RDA) is which type of body ?
(A) Constitutional Body
(B) Statutory Body
(C) Advisory Body
(D) Non-governmental Body
Ans: (B)
Solution: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) is a statutory body in India. It was established by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999, which was enacted by the Parliament of India. As a statutory body, the IRDA has been given the authority and responsibility to regulate, promote, and develop the insurance sector in the country.
The IRDA’s main functions include issuing licenses to insurance companies, setting regulations and guidelines for insurance products and services, protecting the interests of policyholders, and ensuring the financial stability and soundness of the insurance industry.
While constitutional bodies are created by the Constitution of India and non-governmental bodies are independent organizations outside the government, the IRDA falls under the category of a statutory body because it was established through an Act of Parliament and derives its powers and functions from that legislation.
Source: Licchavi Lyceum
72. Deforestation is not a direct cause of:
(A) Loss of biodiversity
(B) Top soil erosion
(C) Global climate change
(D) Species invasion
Ans: (D)
Solution: An invasive species is an organism that causes ecological or economic harm in a new environment where it is not native. Invasive species can harm both the natural resources in an ecosystem as well as threaten human use of these resources. Other three options are direct causes of deforestation.
73. The succession where the community increases its diversity and complexity with time is called:
(A) Primary succession
(B) Progressive succession
(C) Retrogressive succession
(D) Denuded succession
Ans: (B)
Solution: Primary succession is ecological succession that begins in essentially lifeless areas, such as regions in which there is no soil or where the soil is incapable of sustaining life (because of recent lava flows, newly formed sand dunes, or rocks left from a retreating glacier).
Progressive succession refers to the succession where the community becomes. complex and contains more species and biomass over time.
Retrogressive succession refers to the succession where the community becomes. simplistic and contains fewer species and less biomass over time.
Denuded succession starts on the secondary bare area which was once occupied by original vegetation but later became completely cleared of vegetation by the process called denudation. This denudation process is brought about by the destructive agencies, such as fire, cultivation, strong winds, and rains.
74. Biochemical oxygen demand of water is a measure of:
(A) Water Nitrate level
(B) Water phosphate level
(C) Water organic load
(D) Water pesticide load
Ans: (C)
Solution: BOD is a measure of the amount of oxygen required to remove waste organic matter from water in the process of decomposition by aerobic bacteria (those bacteria that live only in an environment containing oxygen).
It is an important water quality parameter because it provides an index to assess the effect discharged wastewater will have on the receiving environment. Depletion of BOD causes stress on aquatic organisms, making the environment unsuitable for life.
75. Which of the following does not belong to natural air pollutant?
(A) Hydrocarbon
(B) SOx
(C) NOx
(D) Peroxyacetyl nitrate
Ans: (D)
Solution: Peroxyacetyl nitrate is an unstable, highly oxygenated compound that exists only in the atmosphere. It is a key intermediate in the formation of the air pollutant ozone.
76. Ex situ conservation includes:
(A) National parks
(B) Botanic gardens
(C) Biosphere reserves
(D) Wildlife sanctuaries
Ans: (B)
Solution: Ex situ conservation is conservation of selected rare plants/animals in places outside their natural homes. It includes botanical gardens or zoological parts, seed banks, cryopreservation, field gene banks and sacred plants.
77. The database generated by ENVIS is used for the management of:
(A) Biodiversity
(B) Freshwater recharge
(C) Ocean Temperature
(D) Popular Growth
Ans: (A) Environmental Information System (ENVIS) is a decentralized system of Centres mandated to develop a web-based distributed network of subject-specific databases. Its purpose is to integrate country-wide efforts in environmental information collection, collation, storage, retrieval and dissemination to all concerned.
78. CBD is expanded as:
(A) Convention on Bio-Diversity
(B) Conservation of Bio-Diversity
(C) Conservation of Biological Diversity
(D) Centre of Biological Diversity
Ans: (A)
Solution: The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), known informally as the Biodiversity Convention, is a multilateral treaty.
The convention was opened for signature at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro on 5 June 1992 and entered into force on 29 December 1993. The United States is the only UN member state which has not ratified the convention. It has two supplementary agreements, the Cartagena Protocol and Nagoya Protocol.
79. Which of the following is a correct combination ?
(A) Sundarban- Rhinoceros
(B) Kaziranga- Lion
(C) Bharatpur-Tigers
(D) Balukhanda- Black buck
Ans: (D)
Solution: Balukhanda Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Odisha. It is known for its population of black bucks. Black bucks are a species of antelope native to the Indian subcontinent and are known for their distinctive black coat and long twisted horns. They are primarily found in grasslands and open areas.
On the other hand, the other options listed do not represent correct combinations of wildlife sanctuaries and animals:
(A) Sundarban is a mangrove forest located in West Bengal, India, and it is known for its population of Royal Bengal Tigers, not rhinoceros.
(B) Kaziranga National Park in Assam, India, is famous for its population of Indian one-horned rhinoceros, not lions.
(C) Bharatpur, also known as Keoladeo National Park, located in Rajasthan, India, is renowned for its diverse bird population, including migratory birds, but it is not associated with tigers.
Therefore, the correct combination is (D) Balukhanda- Black buck.
80. Which of the following is expected to be a cause of the rise in sea level?
(A) Ozone layer depletion
(B) Monsoon rain
(C) Melting of polar ice cap
(D) Continental drift
Ans: (C)
Solution: The rise in sea level is primarily caused by the melting of polar ice caps and glaciers. As global temperatures increase due to climate change, the ice sheets in Greenland and Antarctica, as well as glaciers in mountainous regions, are melting at an accelerated rate. This meltwater flows into the oceans, leading to a rise in sea levels.
The process of melting ice contributes significantly to the increase in global sea levels. It is a consequence of the warming climate and is influenced by factors such as air and ocean temperatures, ocean currents, and atmospheric conditions.
Options (A) Ozone layer depletion, (B) Monsoon rain, and (D) Continental drift are not directly related to the rise in sea levels. Ozone layer depletion affects the absorption of harmful ultraviolet radiation but does not have a direct impact on sea levels. Monsoon rain is a seasonal weather pattern that brings precipitation to certain regions but does not cause a sustained rise in sea levels. Continental drift refers to the slow movement of Earth’s tectonic plates, which does not directly contribute to sea level rise.
The melting of the polar ice cap directly causes the rise in sea level.
81. The solar energy is a:
(A) Conventional energy source
(B) Non-Conventional energy source
(C) Non-renewable energy source
(D) Exhaustible energy source
Ans: (B)
Solution: Solar power is energy from the sun that is converted into thermal or electrical energy. Solar energy is the cleanest and most abundant renewable energy source available.
82. Bats use – to navigate and find food
(A) Resonance
(B) Magneto-reception
(C) Electroreception
(D) Echolocation
Ans: (D)
Solution: Bats navigate and find insect prey using echolocation. They produce sound waves at frequencies above human hearing, called ultrasound. The sound waves emitted by bats bounce off objects in their environment.
83. Nucleic acid present in corona virus is:
(A) Deoxyribonucleic acid
(B) Oxyribonucleic acid
(C) Ribonucleic acid
(D) Chromatin
Ans: (C)
Solution: The nucleic acid present in the coronavirus is Ribonucleic acid, commonly known as RNA. Coronaviruses, including the SARS-CoV-2 virus responsible for the COVID-19 pandemic, have a single-stranded RNA genome. This RNA carries the genetic information of the virus and is responsible for the replication and production of viral proteins.
Unlike Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), which is found in the nucleus of cells and serves as the genetic material in most organisms, coronaviruses have RNA as their genetic material. RNA is involved in various biological processes, including protein synthesis and gene regulation. In the case of coronaviruses, the RNA genome is crucial for the virus’s ability to infect host cells and replicate within them.
84. Television signals are:
(A) Frequency modulated
(B) Amplitude modulated
(C) Both frequency and amplitude modulated
(D) Phase modulated
Ans: (C)
Solution: For T.V broadcasting , frequency modulation for audio signal and amplitude modulation for video transmission are used.
85. Electrical energy is converted into mechanical energy in:
(A) Dynamo
(B) Microphone
(C) Electric motor
(D) Heater
Ans: (C)
Solution: An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy. A generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
86. One light year is:
(A) The distance travelled by light in free space in one year
(B) The light emitted by sun in one year
(C) The time taken by light to travel from sun to earth
(D) Intensity of light emitted by sun in one year
Ans: (A)
Solution: Light-year is the distance light travels in one year. One light-year is about 9 trillion km.
87. Bleeding from nose is caused when a person is there at:
(A) Higher altitudes where atmospheric pressure is low
(B) Lower altitudes where atmospheric pressure is high
(C) Normal altitudes where atmospheric pressure is high
(D) No effect of altitude
Ans: (A)
Solution: Bleeding from the nose, also known as epistaxis, can be caused by several factors. One of the common causes is the change in atmospheric pressure, especially at higher altitudes where the atmospheric pressure is lower.
At higher altitudes, the air pressure decreases, leading to a lower oxygen partial pressure in the blood vessels. This can cause the blood vessels in the nasal passages to become more fragile and prone to rupture, resulting in nosebleeds.
The low humidity often found at higher altitudes can also contribute to dryness in the nasal passages, making the blood vessels more susceptible to bleeding.
On the other hand, at lower altitudes where atmospheric pressure is high, the air pressure is relatively more stable, and the likelihood of nosebleeds due to pressure changes is generally lower.
88. The main component of biogas is:
(A) Butane
(B) Ethylene
(C) Methane
(D) Propane
Ans: (C)
Solution: The biogas (methane) produced in the anaerobic fermentation process is a mixed gas, and its main contents are CH4, CO2, H2S, and water.
89. Subatomic particles are:
(A) Electrons
(B) Protons
(C) Neutrons
(D) All of these
Ans: (D)
Solution: Subatomic particles are Electrons, Protons and Neutrons.
90. Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas because it:
(A) Binds to digestive hormones
(B) Damages lungs
(C) Destroys RBCs
(D) Binds to hemoglobin
Ans: (D)
Solution: Carbon monoxide (CO) is a poisonous gas because it binds strongly to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells (RBCs) that is responsible for transporting oxygen throughout the body. When carbon monoxide is inhaled, it competes with oxygen to bind with hemoglobin, forming a stable compound called carboxyhemoglobin. This reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to a condition called carbon monoxide poisoning.
As a result of carbon monoxide binding to hemoglobin, the body’s tissues and organs are deprived of the necessary oxygen supply, leading to various adverse effects. Carbon monoxide poisoning can cause symptoms such as headaches, dizziness, nausea, confusion, and in severe cases, it can lead to loss of consciousness, organ damage, and even death.
91. Which is NOT a synthetic polymer?
(A) PVC
(B) Nylon
(C) Polystyrene
(D) Resin
Ans: (D)
Solution: Resin is not a synthetic polymer. Resin is a broad term that refers to a class of non-synthetic or natural substances derived from plant or animal sources. Resins can be of various types, including plant resins, animal resins, and synthetic resins.
On the other hand, PVC (Polyvinyl chloride), nylon, and polystyrene are all synthetic polymers. PVC is a synthetic thermoplastic polymer widely used in construction, pipes, and other applications. Nylon is a synthetic polyamide polymer used in textiles, ropes, and engineering plastics. Polystyrene is a synthetic polymer widely used in packaging, insulation, and consumer products.
92. Bee sting causes severe pain and burning sensation due to the presence of:
(A) Acetic acid
(B) Sulfuric acid
(C) Citric acid
(D) Methanoic acid
Ans: (D)
Solution: The sting of a honey bee causes pain and burning sensations because it contains formic acid. Formic acid (HCO2H), also called Methanoic acid, the simplest of the carboxylic acids, used in processing textiles and leather.
93. Albinism is caused due to the deficiency of a/an:
(A) Hormone
(B) Enzyme
(C) Vitamin
(D) Metal
Ans: (B)
Solution: Albinism is a genetic condition characterized by a lack of pigment (melanin) in the skin, hair, and eyes. It is primarily caused by a genetic mutation that affects the production of an enzyme called Tyrosinase.
Tyrosinase is involved in the production of melanin, which gives color to the skin, hair, and eyes. When there is a deficiency or absence of Tyrosinase, melanin production is impaired, resulting in the characteristic features of albinism.
94. In ballpoint pens, dyes used are:
(A) Water based
(B) Alcohol based
(C) Glycerine based
(D) Oil based
Ans: (D)
Sol: Ballpoint pens use oil-based ink, which consists of dyes or pigments dissolved or dispersed in an oil-based solution.
95. Which one of the following colours is least deviated by the glass prism ?
(A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Violet
(D) Orange
Ans: (B) Red
Solution: When light passes through a glass prism, it undergoes refraction, causing different colors of light to bend at different angles. This phenomenon is called dispersion. The extent of deviation depends on the wavelength of the light, with shorter wavelengths being more deviated and longer wavelengths being less deviated.
Out of the given options, red light has the longest wavelength among visible colors, so it is least deviated by a glass prism. On the other hand, violet light has the shortest wavelength and is most deviated by the prism.
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Red.
96. ‘Ficus Benghalensis’ is the scientific name of:
(A) Brinjal
(B) Banana
(C) Peepal
(D) Banyan
Ans: (D)
Solution: Ficus Benghalensis also called Indian banyan (tree of the mulberry family), native to the Indian subcontinent.
97. Spirogyra is a kind of:
(A) Algae
(B) Fungi
(C) Bacteria
(D) Virus
Ans: (A)
Sol: Spirogyra is an example of Green algae.
98. Which of the following substances is not synthetic?
(A) Fibroin
(B) Lexan
(C) Neoprene
(D) Teflon
Ans: (A) Fibroin
Solution: Fibroin is a natural protein that is found in silk. It is produced by silkworms and is the main component of silk fibers. Unlike the other options listed, Fibroin is not a synthetic substance; it occurs naturally in silk.
The other options, Lexan, Neoprene, and Teflon, are all synthetic substances:
- Lexan is a brand name for a type of polycarbonate, which is a synthetic thermoplastic polymer.
- Neoprene is a synthetic rubber material commonly used in various applications, such as wetsuits.
- Teflon is a brand name for a type of synthetic fluoropolymer known as polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE).
So, the correct answer is (A) Fibroin.
99. Change in the base sequence within a gene is called:
(A) Mutation
(B) Cloning
(C) Fusion
(D) Breeding
Ans: (A)
Solution: With base substitution mutations, only a single nucleotide within a gene sequence is changed.
100. Hypsometer is used to measure:
(A) The pressure of gas
(B) The boiling point of liquids
(C) The level of humidity
(D) The depth of ocean
Ans: (D)
Solution: A hypsometer is an instrument for measuring height or elevation.
OPSC Civil Services Previous
Question Papers – Prelims and Mains Exam
OPSC OAS
Mains 2021
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Subject |
Paper-I |
Paper-II |
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Compulsory Odia |
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Compulsory English |
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English Essay |
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General Studies |
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Agriculture |
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Animal Husbandry & Veterinary
Science |
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Anthropology |
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Agricultural engineering |
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Botany |
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Chemistry |
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Civil Engineering |
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Commerce & Accountancy |
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Economics |
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Electrical Engineering |
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Education |
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English |
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Fisheries Science |
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Forestry |
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Geography |
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Geology |
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History |
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Hindi |
Download |
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Home Science |
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Odia |
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Law |
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Management |
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Mathematics |
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Mechanical Engineering |
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Philosophy |
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Physics |
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Political Science and
International Relations |
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Public administration |
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Psychology |
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Sanskrit |
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Sociology |
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Statistics |
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Zoology |
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OPSC OAS
Mains 2020
|
Subject |
Paper-I |
Paper-II |
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Compulsory Odia |
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Compulsory English |
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English Essay |
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General Studies |
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Agriculture |
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Animal Husbandry and
Veterinary Science |
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Anthropology |
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Agricultural engineering |
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Botany |
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Chemistry |
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Civil Engineering |
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Commerce and Accountancy |
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Economics |
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Electrical Engineering |
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Education |
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English |
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Fisheries Science |
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Forestry |
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Geography |
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Geology |
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History |
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Hindi |
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Home Science |
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Odia |
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Law |
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Management |
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Mathematics |
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Mechanical Engineering |
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Philosophy |
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Physics |
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Political Science and
International Relations |
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Public administration |
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Psychology |
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Sanskrit |
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Sociology |
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Statistics |
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Zoology |
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OPSC OAS
Mains 2019
|
Subject |
Paper-I |
Paper-II |
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Compulsory Odia |
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Compulsory English |
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English Essay |
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||
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General Studies |
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Agriculture |
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Animal Husbandry and
Veterinary Science |
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Anthropology |
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Agricultural engineering |
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Botany |
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Chemistry |
|
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Civil Engineering |
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Commerce and Accountancy |
|
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Economics |
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Electrical Engineering |
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Education |
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English |
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Fisheries Science |
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Forestry |
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Geography |
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Geology |
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History |
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Hindi |
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Home Science |
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Odia |
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Law |
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Management |
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Mathematics |
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Mechanical Engineering |
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Philosophy |
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Physics |
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Political Science and
International Relations |
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Public administration |
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Psychology |
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Sanskrit |
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Sociology |
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Statistics |
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Zoology |
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OPSC OAS
Mains 2018
|
Subject |
Paper-I |
Paper-II |
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Compulsory Odia |
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Compulsory English |
|
|||
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English Essay |
|
|||
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General Studies |
|
|||
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Agriculture |
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Animal Husbandry and
Veterinary Science |
|
|||
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Anthropology |
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Agricultural engineering |
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Botany |
|
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Chemistry |
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Civil Engineering |
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Commerce & Accountancy |
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Economics |
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Electrical Engineering |
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Education |
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English |
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Fisheries Science |
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Forestry |
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Geography |
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Geology |
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History |
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Hindi |
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Home Science |
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Odia |
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Law |
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Management |
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Mathematics |
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Mechanical Engineering |
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Philosophy |
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Physics |
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Political Science and International
Relations |
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Public administration |
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Psychology |
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Sanskrit |
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Sociology |
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Statistics |
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Zoology |
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OPSC OAS
Mains 2017
|
Subject |
Paper-I |
Paper-II |
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||
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Compulsory
Odia |
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||||
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Compulsory
English |
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||||
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English
Essay |
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||||
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General
Studies |
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||||
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Agriculture |
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||||
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Animal
Husbandry & Veterinary Science |
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||||
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Anthropology |
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||||
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Agricultural
engineering |
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||||
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Botany |
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||||
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Chemistry |
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||||
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Civil
Engineering |
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||||
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Commerce
& Accountancy |
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||||
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Economics |
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||||
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Electrical
Engineering |
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||||
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Education |
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||||
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English |
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||||
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Fisheries
Science |
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Forestry |
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Geography |
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Geology |
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Hindi |
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History |
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Home
Science |
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Odia |
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Law |
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||||
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Management |
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||||
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Mathematics |
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Mechanical
Engineering |
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Philosophy |
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Physics |
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Political
Science and International Relations |
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Public
administration |
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||||
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Psychology |
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||||
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Sanskrit |
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||||
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Sociology |
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||||
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Statistics |
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||||
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Zoology |
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|||||
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||||||
OPSC OAS
Mains 2016
|
Subject |
Paper-I |
Paper-II |
|
||
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Compulsory Odia |
|
||||
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Compulsory English |
|
||||
|
English Essay |
|
||||
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General Studies |
|
||||
|
Agriculture |
|
||||
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Animal Husbandry & Veterinary
Science |
|
||||
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Anthropology |
|
||||
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Agricultural engineering |
|
||||
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Botany |
|
||||
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Chemistry |
|
||||
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Civil Engineering |
|
||||
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Commerce and Accountancy |
|
||||
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Economics |
|
||||
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Electrical Engineering |
|
||||
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Education |
|
||||
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English |
|
||||
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Fisheries Science |
|
||||
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Forestry |
|
||||
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Geography |
|
||||
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Geology |
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||||
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Hindi |
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||||
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History |
|
||||
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Home Science |
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||||
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Odia |
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||||
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Law |
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||||
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Management |
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||||
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Mathematics |
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||||
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Mechanical Engineering |
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||||
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Philosophy |
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||||
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Physics |
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||||
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Political Science and
International Relations |
|
||||
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Public administration |
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||||
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Psychology |
|
||||
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Sanskrit |
|
||||
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Sociology |
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||||
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Statistics |
|
||||
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Zoology |
|
||||
|
|||||
OPSC OAS
Mains 2015
|
Subject |
Paper-I |
Paper-II |
|
Compulsory Odia |
||
|
Compulsory English |
||
|
English Essay |
||
|
General Studies |
||
|
Agriculture |
||
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Animal Husbandry and
Veterinary Science |
||
|
Anthropology |
||
|
Agricultural engineering |
||
|
Botany |
||
|
Chemistry |
||
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Civil Engineering |
||
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Commerce and Accountancy |
||
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Economics |
||
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Electrical Engineering |
||
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Education |
||
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English |
||
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Fisheries Science |
||
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Forestry |
||
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Geography |
||
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Geology |
||
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Hindi |
||
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History |
||
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Home Science |
||
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Odia |
||
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Law |
||
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Management |
||
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Mathematics |
||
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Mechanical Engineering |
||
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Philosophy |
||
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Physics |
||
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Political Science and
International Relations |
||
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Public administration |
||
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Psychology |
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Sanskrit |
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Sociology |
||
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Statistics |
||
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Zoology |
Common Written Exam for Recruitment of Asst. Conservator of Forest
|
Asst.
Conservator of Forest (Advt. No. 14 of 2015-16), Forest Rangers (Advt. No. 20
of 2015-16) & Forest Rangers (Advt. No. 21 of 2015-16) |
Examination for Recruitment of Junior
Lecturers in O.E.S. (Higher Secondary Branch) [Pursuant to Advt. No.02 OF
2009–10]- 2009-10
|
|
Examination for Recruitment of Junior
Lecturers in O.E.S. [Pursuant to Advt. No.09 OF 2011–12] -2010-11
|
|
Examination for Recruitment of Junior
Lecturers in O.E.S. [Pursuant to Advt. No.06 OF 2013–14]- 2013-14
|
|
Written Exam for Recruitment to the Posts of
Post Graduate Teacher [Advt. No. 06 of 2017-18]
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Drugs
Inspector
|
|
Written Examination for Recruitment of
Public Prosecutor, Advt. No 08 of 2013-14
|
|
Written Examination for Recruitment of
Public Prosecutor, Advt. No 05 of 2016-17
|
|
Written Examination for Recruitment of
Additional Public Prosecutor, Advt. No 03 of 2017-18
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Asst.
Public Prosecutor
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Asst.
Public Prosecutor, Advt. No 11 of 2013-14
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Asst.
Public Prosecutor, Advt. No 12 of 2016-17
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Asst.
Engineer (Electrical), Pursuant to Advt. No. 02 of 2012-13
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Asst.
Executive Engineer (Electrical), Pursuant to Advt. No. 11 of 2015-16
|
|
Odisha Education Service (School Branch),
Pursuant to Advt. No. 04 of 2011-12
|
|
Odisha Education Service (School Branch),
Pursuant to Advt. No. 03 of 2014-15
|
|
Common Written Exam. held for Rect. of Asst.
Director in OSES Cadre in Pursuance of Advt. No. 07 of 2015-16 and Advt. No.
10 of 2015-16
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Asst.
Director of Textiles (Advt. No. 09 of 2013-14)
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Ayurvedic
Medical Officer (Advt. No. 18 of 2013-14)
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Ayurvedic
Medical Officer (Advt. No. 22 of 2015-16)
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Ayurvedic
Medical Officer (Advt. No. 16 of 2018-19)
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of
Homoeopathic Medical Officer (Advt. No. 19 of 2013-14)
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of
Homoeopathic Medical Officer (Advt. No. 23 of 2015-16)
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Homoeopathic
Medical Officer (Advt. No. 17 of 2018-19)
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Dental
Surgeons (Advt. No. 23 of 2013-14)
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Dental
Surgeons (Advt. No. 15 of 2017-18)
|
|
Written Examination for Special Rect. of
Dental Surgeons (Advt. No. 06 of 2018-19)
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Junior
Assistant in the Office of OPSC (Advt. No. 02 of 2014-15)
|
|
Special Recruitment to the Post of Asst.
Section Officer (Advt. No. 06 of 2015-16)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Lecturer in
different disciplines in Utkal Sangeet Mahavidyalaya (Advt. No. 05 of 2012-13)
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Asst.
Executive Engineer (Civil& Mechanical), Pursuant to Advt. No. 03 of 2015-16
|
|
Written Examination for Rect. of Tourist
Officer, Pursuant to Advt. No. 17 of 2013-14
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Asst. Section
Officer (Advt. No. 08 of 2012-13)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Asst. Section
Officer (Advt. No. 10 of 2018-19)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Lecturer in Ayurveda
Medical Colleges of the State(Advt. No. 01 of 2014-15)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Lecturer in Ayurveda
Medical Colleges of the State(Advt. No. 09 of 2017-18)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Medical Officer
(Asst. Surgeon)[Advt. No. 18 of 2015-16)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Medical Officer
(Asst. Surgeon)[Advt. No. 07 of 2016-17)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Medical Officer
(Asst. Surgeon)[Advt. No. 12 of 2017-18)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Medical Officer
(Asst. Surgeon)[Advt. No. 18 of 2018-19)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Insurance Medical
Officer Advt. No. 11 of 2016-17)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Lecturer in
Homoeopathic Medical Colleges of the State(Advt. No. 01 of 2015-16)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of M.V.I / A.R.T.O/
Asst. Works Engineer (Advt. No. 04 of 2016-17)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Veterinary
Assistant Surgeon(Advt. No. 03 of 2013-14)
|
|
Special Recruitment to the Post of
Veterinary Assistant Surgeon(Advt. No. 09 of 2016-17)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Veterinary
Assistant Surgeon(Advt. No. 08 of 2017-18)
|
|
Special Recruitment to the Post of
Veterinary Assistant Surgeon(Advt. No. 04 of 2018-19)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Asst. Professor(Specialty)
(Advt. No. 10 of 2016-17)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of lecturer in
Physical Education(Advt. No. 07 of 2017-18)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of lecturer in OTET
Service Cadre(Advt. No. 13 of 2017-18)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Sr. Teacher
Educator(Advt. No. 12 of 2015-16)
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Asst. Director in
OPSC Cadre[Advt. No. 06 of 2016-17]
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Asst. Director
(Research)[Advt. No. 20 of 2018-19]
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Geologist / Geophysicist
/ Mining Officer[Advt. No. 09 of 2018-19]
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Asst.
Horticulture Officer[Advt. No. 23 of 2018-19]
|
|
Recruitment to Odisha Municipal
Administrative Services-2019[Advt. No. 03 of 2019-20]
[PAPER I & II]
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Asst. Town
Planner[Advt. No. 04 of 2019-20]
|
|
Recruitment to the Post of Asst. Agriculture
Engineer[Advt. No. 02 of 2019-20]
[PAPER I & II]
|
|
OPSC all years Previous Question Papers here | Download/View |
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