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SSC CHSL Previous Year Question Papers PDF
12th October 2020
(Shift-1) Question Paper PDF
12th October 2020
(Shift-2) Question Paper PDF
13th October 2020
(Shift-1) Question Paper PDF
13th October 2020 (Shift-2) Question Paper PDF
SSC CHSL ka Previous Year Question Papers 2018 Morning Shift 9 Jul 2019
SSC CHSL Question Paper 2018 pdf
SSC CHSL Previous Year Question Papers 2018
संयुक्त उच्चतर माध्यमिक स्तर के पिछले प्रश्न पत्र यहाँ से प्राप्त करें।
Staff Selection Commission
SSC
Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination Papers
SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) (CHSL Tier-1)
CHSL Tier-1 Exam 2018
SSC
CHSL (Tier - 1) Online Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 9 July 2019"
English Comprehension+ Reasoning+ Quantitative Aptitude + General Awareness
Morning-Shift (Englisg Language)
Q1. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
We have been waiting to watch this movie since we first read its review.
Options:
1. We has been waiting
2. We have being waiting
3. No improvement.
4. We are been waiting
Correct Answer: No improvement.
Q2. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
With this heat wave on, we are having a terrible weather.
Options:
1. With this
2. heat wave on
3. a terrible weather
4. we are having
Correct Answer: a terrible weather
Q3. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
QUEST
Options:
1. destination
2. route
3. path
4. search
Correct Answer: search
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Students of marketing know that the term Unique Selling Proposition, or USP was developed in the 1940s in the United States. USP is (1) ______ as the true value (2) ______ a firm. At the core of (3) ______ successful business, there is (4) ______ a value proposition, something (5) ______ promoters and the managers are proud of.
Q4. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1.
Options:
1. regarded
2. reviewed
3. repeated
4. referred
Correct Answer: regarded
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Students of marketing know that the term Unique Selling Proposition, or USP was developed in the 1940s in the United States. USP is (1) ______ as the true value (2) ______ a firm. At the core of (3) ______ successful business, there is (4) ______ a value proposition, something (5) ______ promoters and the managers are proud of.
Q5. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2.
Options:
1. of
2. on
3. by
4. from
Correct Answer: of
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Students of marketing know that the term Unique Selling Proposition, or USP was developed in the 1940s in the United States. USP is (1) ______ as the true value (2) ______ a firm. At the core of (3) ______ successful business, there is (4) ______ a value proposition, something (5) ______ promoters and the managers are proud of.
Q6. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3.
Options:
1. only
2. large
3. every
4. sole
Correct Answer: every
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Students of marketing know that the term Unique Selling Proposition, or USP was developed in the 1940s in the United States. USP is (1) ______ as the true value (2) ______ a firm. At the core of (3) ______ successful business, there is (4) ______ a value proposition, something (5) ______ promoters and the managers are proud of.
Q7. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4.
Options:
1. one
2. ready
3. even
4. always
Correct Answer: always
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Students of marketing know that the term Unique Selling Proposition, or USP was developed in the 1940s in the United States. USP is (1) ______ as the true value (2) ______ a firm. At the core of (3) ______ successful business, there is (4) ______ a value proposition, something (5) ______ promoters and the managers are proud of.
Q8. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5.
Options:
1. those
2. the
3. there
4. this
Correct Answer: the
Q9. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
ARROGANT
Options:
1. bold
2. uncouth
3. humble
4. rough
Correct Answer: humble
Q10. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
ORTHODOX
Options:
1. habitual
2. civilized
3. deliberate
4. traditional
Correct Answer: traditional
Q11. Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.
They will complete the painting in a week's time.
Options:
1. The painting is completed in a week's time.
2. The painting was completed in a week's time.
3. The painting had been completed in a week's time.
4. The painting will be completed in a week's time.
Correct Answer: The painting will be completed in a week's time.
Q12. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
As you know that I always like to have ice-cream after my dinner.
Options:
1. As you know that
2. after my dinner
3. I always like
4. to have ice-cream
Correct Answer: As you know that
Q13. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
ADVANCE
Options:
1. move
2. progress
3. shift
4. retreat
Correct Answer: retreat
Q14. Select the correctly spelt word
Options:
1. reiceit
2. reeciet
3. receipt
4. reciept
Correct Answer: receipt
Q15. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
The annual wholesale price index jumped to its highest level last month posing a fresh ______ for policy makers to remain watchful on the price front.
Options:
1. challenge
2. check
3. choice
4. chain
Correct Answer: challenge
Q16. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom
at arm's length
Options:
1. avoiding too much closeness
2. checking the length of fabric
3. using one's arm to measure length
4. as close as one can touch
Correct Answer: avoiding too much closeness
Q17. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
I'm afraid I am not knowing how to swim so I can't join you all that day.
Options:
1. No improvement.
2. I'm afraid I is not knowing
3. I'm afraid I do not know
4. I are afraid I be not knowing
Correct Answer: I'm afraid I do not know
Q18. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
The airline had earlier ______ payment only to those in the high-income bracket but now salaries have dried up for everyone.
Options:
1. deployed
2. deferred
3. decided
4. demanded
Correct Answer: deferred
Q19. Select the correctly spelt word
Options:
1. acknoledgement
2. accoustomed
3. achievement
4. accreditted
Correct Answer: achievement
Q20. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
A. The woman is wearing an evening dress and heavy make up, which is now smeared across her cheeks.
B. But, who is she, and how did she get there?
C. It's seven in the morning and the Bantrys wake to find the body of a young woman in their library.
D. The respectable Bantrys invite Miss Marple to solve the mystery before tongues start to wag.
Options:
1. BACD
2. CABD
3. CDBA
4. DCBA
Correct Answer: CABD
Q21. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
A. For them, it's like a magic carpet, their version of a car.
B. All kids want to be older, so from an early age they imitate their parents or siblings.
C. While cycling they imagine they are doing adult things or being adults.
D. Bikes offer them a chance to be independent.
Options:
1. BACD
2. ADCB
3. BDAC
4. DCBA
Correct Answer: BDAC
Q22. Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words.
A word formed from the initial letters of other words and pronounced as a word
Options:
1. epitome
2. precise
3. acronym
4. ellipsis
Correct Answer: acronym
Q23. Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.
The interviewer asked Ashok, "Why did you leave that job last month?"
Options:
1. The interviewer asked Ashok why he had left that job the previous month.
2. The interviewer asked Ashok why you have left that job the previous month.
3. The interviewer asked Ashok that why did he leave that job the previous month.
4. The interviewer asked Ashok that why he leave that job the last month.
Correct Answer: The interviewer asked Ashok why he had left that job the previous month.
Q24. Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words.
a short statement of a general truth or rule of conduct
Options:
1. instance
2. maxim
3. parable
4. illustration
Correct Answer: maxim
Q25. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom acid test
Options:
1. proof that an attack has been made
2. a test that shows how to harm someone
3. a malicious way of taking revenge
4. definitive proof of truth or falsehood
Correct Answer: definitive proof of truth or falsehood
Evening-Shift (Englisg Language)
Q1. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom
draw a blank
Options :
1. be happy about something
2. be lucky in a game
3. be unable to sketch
4. be unsuccessful
Correct answer: be unsuccessful
Q2. Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words
The statistical study of the population
Options :
1. psychology
2. demography
3. anthropology
4. sociology
Correct answer: demography
Q3. Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.
They will not allow mobile phones in the examination hall.
Options :
1. Mobile phones are not being allowed in the examination hall.
2. Mobile phones were not allowed in the examination hall.
3. Mobile phones are not allowed in the examination hall.
4. Mobile phones will not be allowed in the examination hall.
Correct answer: Mobile phones will not be allowed in the examination hall.
Q4. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
If I does not pay my post-paid mobile bill by tomorrow I will probably have to pay a fine.
Options :
1. If I do not pay
2. No improvement
3. If I had not paid
4. If I has not paid
Correct answer: If I do not pay
Q5. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
It is not ______ of language that makes one an ineffective speaker; it is the dearth of ideas.
Options :
1. difficulty
2. poverty
3. complexity
4. intricacy
Correct answer: poverty
Q6. Select the correctly spelt word.
Options :
1. terbulence
2. turbulense
3. turbulance
4. turbulence
Correct answer: turbulence
Q7. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
A. Today, man is master of the world and he makes the animals do what he likes.
B. Others he eats; and those like the lion and the tiger, he shoots for pleasure.
C. Early man, when he first came, must have been surrounded by many huge animals, and he must have lived in fear of them.
D. Some he tames like the horse, the cow, the elephant, the dog, the cat and so many others.
Options :
1. CBDA
2. ACBD
3. CADB
4. BCDA
Correct answer: CADB
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
After a lesson on negative sentences, a pupil tells his teacher, "I ain't got no pencils." She corrects him immediately saying, "The correct way to say (1) ______ is, "I don't have any pencils". "We don't (2) ______ any pencils." "He (3) ______ have any pencils. They don't have any pencils. (4) ______ you understand?" asks the teacher. "No," the boy Options :wers, astonished. "(5) ______ happened to all the pencils?"
Q8. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1.
Options :
1. it
2. them
3. those
4. which
Correct answer: it
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
After a lesson on negative sentences, a pupil tells his teacher, "I ain't got no pencils." She corrects him immediately saying, "The correct way to say (1) ______ is, "I don't have any pencils". "We don't (2) ______ any pencils." "He (3) ______ have any pencils. They don't have any pencils. (4) ______ you understand?" asks the teacher. "No," the boy Options :wers, astonished. "(5) ______ happened to all the pencils?"
Q9. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2.
Options :
1. having
2. has
3. had
4. have
Correct answer: have
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
After a lesson on negative sentences, a pupil tells his teacher, "I ain't got no pencils." She corrects him immediately saying, "The correct way to say (1) ______ is, "I don't have any pencils". "We don't (2) ______ any pencils." "He (3) ______ have any pencils. They don't have any pencils. (4) ______ you understand?" asks the teacher. "No," the boy Options :wers, astonished. "(5) ______ happened to all the pencils?"
Q10. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3.
Options :
1. doesn't
2. don't
3. do
4. does
Correct answer: doesn't
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
After a lesson on negative sentences, a pupil tells his teacher, "I ain't got no pencils." She corrects him immediately saying, "The correct way to say (1) ______ is, "I don't have any pencils". "We don't (2) ______ any pencils." "He (3) ______ have any pencils. They don't have any pencils. (4) ______ you understand?" asks the teacher. "No," the boy Options :wers, astonished. "(5) ______ happened to all the pencils?"
Q11. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4.
Options :
1. Do
2. Does
3. Doesn't
4. Have
Correct answer: Do
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
After a lesson on negative sentences, a pupil tells his teacher, "I ain't got no pencils." She corrects him immediately saying, "The correct way to say (1) ______ is, "I don't have any pencils". "We don't (2) ______ any pencils." "He (3) ______ have any pencils. They don't have any pencils. (4) ______ you understand?" asks the teacher. "No," the boy Options :wers, astonished. "(5) ______ happened to all the pencils?"
Q12. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5.
Options :
1. How
2. Which
3. Where
4. What
Correct answer: What
Q13. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
A. But now that his father had asked him to fetch some cheroots, he would have to pass by the high school to reach the shop.
B. The teachers and students would all be there, and he was ashamed of being seen outdoors.
C. Of late Krishna had confined himself to the four walls of the house.
D. Wondering how to get past the school unnoticed, he slowly ventured out.
Options :
1. DACB
2. CBDA
3. ACBD
4. CABD
Correct answer: CABD
Q14. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
The express bus generally stops at only the major towns on the route.
Options :
1. generally stop in only the major towns
2. No improvement
3. generally stopping on only the major towns
4. generally stopped from only the major towns
Correct answer: No improvement
Q15. Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words
A person who is skilled at writing beautifully
Options :
1. painter
2. cartoonist
3. artist
4. calligrapher
Correct answer: calligrapher
Q16. Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.
The doctor told his patient, "Continue the same course of medicines for the next week."
Options :
1. The doctor told his patient to continued the same course of medicines in the next week.
2. The doctor told his patient for continuing the same course of medicines for the next week.
3. The doctor told his patient that he may continue the same course of medicines in the following week.
4. The doctor told his patient to continue the same course of medicines for the following week.
Correct answer: The doctor told his patient to continue the same course of medicines for the following week.
Q17. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom
late in the day
Options :
1. too delayed to be of any use
2. too ripe to eat
3. too dark to see anything
4. too old to work
Correct answer: too delayed to be of any use
Click here for SSC Steno/MTS, CHSL & DEO Previous Years Question Papers, एस एस सी डाटा एंट्री ऑपरेटर, एम टी एस एवं सी एच एस एल के पिछली परीक्षाओं के प्रश्न पत्र यहाँ से निशुल्क प्राप्त करें-
Q18. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
CHRONIC
Options :
1. infrequent
2. regular
3. routine
4. continuing
Correct answer: infrequent
Q19. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
FLEETING
Options :
1. complete
2. lasting
3. momentary
4. ready
Correct answer: momentary
Q20. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
The two states frequently has differences over the use of the river water especially during the summer months.
Options :
1. has differences
2. especially during the summer months
3. over the use of the river water
4. The two states frequently
Correct answer: has differences
Q21. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
MENTAL
Options :
1. strength
2. physical
3. brainy
4. ability
Correct answer: physical
Q22. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
ANOMALOUS
Options :
1. indirect
2. peculiar
3. unhealthy
4. common
Correct answer: peculiar
Q23. Select the wrongly spelt word.
Options :
1. triangulation
2. resentment
3. comencement
4. continuation
Correct answer: comencement
Q24. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
The Chairman advised them to build a bridge between the two companies using ______ and compromise.
Options :
1. competition
2. negotiation
3. control
4. strength
Correct answer: negotiation
Q25. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
The childrens are fond of climbing the mango tree in the garden.
Options :
1. The childrens
2. climbing the mango tree
3. in the garden
4. are fond of
Correct answer: The childrens
Evening - Shift (Reasoning)
Q1. Sona is sister of Ramesh and daughter of Mohit. Rama is wife of Mohit and Mother of Prabhat. How Ramesh is related to Prabhat?
Options :
1. Father
2. Son
3. Brother
4. Cousin
Correct answer: Brother
Q2. In a code language, MYCOLOGY is written as PBFRORJV. How will AMMONIA be written as in that language?
Options :
1. DPQRQLD
2. DPPRQLX
3. CPPSQJX
4. DPJRQLX
Correct answer: DPPRQLX
Q3. Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.
Q4. Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the following word-pair.
Important : Essential
Options :
1. Never : Always
2. Up : Down
3. Pick : Drop
4. Awful : Horrible
Correct answer: Awful : Horrible
Q5. Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.
Food, Lentils, pules
Q6. What will be the day of the week on 15 August 2021?
Options :
1. Monday
2. Wednesday
3. Sunday
4. Saturday
Correct answer: Sunday
Q7. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(16, 4, 80 )
Options :
1. (6, 4, 40 )
2. (13, 5, 78 )
3. (5, 5, 70 )
4. (11, 7, 77 )
Correct answer: (13, 5, 78 )
Q8. Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
Options :
1. NPR
2. HJL
3. BDF
4. SUV
Correct answer: SUV
Q9 . A figure of transparent sheet with a pattern is given below. Figure out from amongst the four options as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.
Q10. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right of the figure.
Q11. Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the number that is different from the rest.
Options :
1. 73
2. 71
3. 87
4. 59
Correct answer: 87
Q12. Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the gaps of the given letter series will complete the series.
OL, QO, __, UU, WX
Options :
1. RS
2. SU
3. ST
4. SR
Correct answer: SR
Q13. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(7, 4, 65 )
Options :
1. (5, 4, 41 )
2. (6, 4, 70 )
3. (9, 6, 80 )
4. (11, 8, 105 )
Correct answer: (5, 4, 41 )
Q14. Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the following number-pair.
13 : 65
Options :
1. 12 : 45
2. 17 : 42
3. 19 : 95
4. 21 : 85
Correct answer: 19 : 95
Q15. Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different.
Pick the odd word out.
Options :
1. Cow
2. Wolf
3. Goat
4. Cat
Correct answer: Wolf
Q16. Three different positions of life same dice, which has one to six dots on its six faces, are shown below. When six dots are at the bottom then the number of dots on the top will be:
Options :
1. 5
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Q17. Which two signs and two numbers should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct?
18 + 25 - 10 × 10 ÷ 5 = 203
Options :
1. + and - , 18 and 25
2. + and ÷ , 18 and 5
3. × and - , 18 and 25
4. × and ÷ , 25 and 5
Correct answer: × and - , 18 and 25
Q18. Select the option in which the given figure X is embedded. (Rotation not allowed)
Q19. Select the option that is related to the third letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster.
Ginger : Stem : : Chilli : ?
Options :
1. Fruit
2. Root
3. Flower
4. Stem
Correct answer: Fruit
SSC CHSL Previous Question Papers Download
SSC CHSL 2018 Solved Paper Held On 3 Jul 2019 Morning Download
SSC CHSL 2018 Solved Paper Held 3 Jul 2019 Evening Download
SSC CHSL 2018 Solved Paper Held 2 Jul 2019 Morning Download
SSC CHSL 2018 Solved Question Paper Held 2 Jul 2019 A/N Download
SSC CHSL 2018 Solved Paper
Held 4 Jul 2019 Evening Shift Download
SSC CHSL 2018 Solved Paper
Held 4 Jul 2019 A/N Shift Download
SSC CHSL 2018 Solved Paper
held on 10 Jul 2019 A/N Download
SSC CHSL 2018 Solved Paper
8 Jul 2019 Evening Shift Download
SSC CHSL 2018 Solved Paper
8 Jul 2019 Morning Download
SSC CHSL 2018 Solved
Paper 9 Jul 2019 Morning+ Evening Download
SSC CHSL 2018 Solved
Paper held on 11 Jul 2019 Evening Download
SSC CHSL Solved Paper
2018 held on 11 Jul 2019 A/N Download
SSC CHSL 2018 Solved
Paper held on 11 Jul 2019 Morning Download
SSC Steno/MTS/CHSL & DEO Previous Question Papers Download
SSC CHSL Exam held on 20 October 2013 Morning Shift Download
SSC CHSL Tier 1 Free Practice Set 15 PDF in Hindi (2016) Download
Q20. Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
6, 10, 26, 62, ?
Options :
1. 92
2. 126
3. 216
4. 112
Correct answer: 126
Q21. Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:All eggs are hens.
All hens are birds.
All birds are crows.
Conclusions:I. All eggs are crows.
II. All hens are crows.
III. Some crows are birds.
Options :
1. Only conclusion II and III follow.
2. Only conclusion I and II follow.
3. All conclusions I, II and III follow.
4. Only conclusion I follows.
Correct answer: All conclusions I, II and III follow.
Q22. Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Childhood
2. Adulthood
3. Infancy
4. Adolescence
5. Senility
Options :
1. 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
2. 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
3. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
4. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
Correct answer: 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
Q23. How many triangle are present in the following figure?
Options :
1. 30
2. 31
3. 28
4. 32
Correct answer: 10
Q24. ‘Lizard’ is related to ‘Reptiles’ in the same way as ‘Toad’ is related to ‘____’.
Options :
1. Vertibreta
2. Reptiles
3. Mammals
4. Amphibians
Correct answer: Amphibians
Q25. If RUBY is coded as 264 and PAY is coded as 126, then how will RUPAY be coded as?
Options :
1. 81
2. 145
3. 375
4. 405
Correct answer: 405
Evening - Shift (Quantitative Aptitude)
Q1. If is an acute angle, and it is given that 5 sinΘ + 12 cosΘ = 13, then what is the value of tanΘ ?
Options:
1. 5/13
2. 12/13
3. 5/12
4. 13/12
Correct answer: 5/12
Q2. If A, B and c can respectively complete a piece of work in 20,24 and 36 days respectively, how many days will they take to complete the work, if they work together ?
Options:
1. 360/43
2. 25/1
3. 37/4
4. 159/20
Correct answer: 360/43
Q3. The given Bar Graph presents the scale (in 1000 kg) of a particular brand of tea by three outlets, A, B and C during the months Jan, Feb, Mar, and Apr, 2018.
What is the ratio of rate of growth in sales from B to the rate of growth in sales from C in Mar 2018 with reference to its previous month ?
Options:
1. 10 : 21
2. 10 : 19
3. 9 : 19
4. 9: 16
Correct answer: 10 : 21
Q4. If I travel by bus, I reach my office 15 min late, and if I travel by car, I reach 10 min early. If the distance between my home and my office is 25 km, then the difference of the reciprocals of average speeds of the bus, in second per metre is:
Options:
1. 3/20
2. 3/50
3. 3/25
4. 3/10
Correct answer: 3/50
Q5. The given Bar Graph presents the scale (in 1000 kg) of a particular brand of tea by three outlets, A, B and C during the months Jan, Feb, Mar, and Apr, 2018.
What is the average scale per month by a during Jan-Mar, 2018 ?
Options:
1. 7505 kg
2. 7334.67 kg
3. 5500 kg
4. 7333.33 kg
Correct answer: 7333.33 kg
Q6. The given Bar Graph presents the scale (in 1000 kg) of a particular brand of tea by three outlets, A, B and C during the months Jan, Feb, Mar, and Apr, 2018.
Arrange the ratio of sales from B to that from A and C, taken together, month wise in ascending order
Options:
1. Jan, Mar, Feb, Apr
2. Jan, Feb, Mar, Apr
3. Jan, Mar, Apr, Feb
4. Jan, Apr, Mar, Feb
Correct answer: Jan, Mar, Apr, Feb
Q7. Which among the following increases continously in the range 0° < Θ < 90° ?
Options:
1. cosΘ
2. tanΘ
3. cotΘ
4. cosecΘ
Correct answer: tanΘ
Q8. If (3x + 1)³ + (x - 3)³ + (2x - 4)³ = 6(3x + 1) (x - 3) (x - 2), then x is equal to:
Options:
1. 1
2. 2
3. -1/3
4. 3
Correct answer: 1
Q9. The value of the expression 1/4 {(a + 1/a)² - (a - 1/a)²} is :
Options:
1. 1
2. 4
3. 1/4
4. 1/2
Correct answer: 1
Q10. Two items are sold for Rs.18,602, each. On one item there has been a gain of 31% and on the second item a loss of 29%. What was the overall loss or gain in the transaction?
Options:
1. Gain 8.25%
2. loss 7.91%
3. loss 8.25%
4. Gain 7.91%
Correct answer: loss 7.91%
Q11. An article is sold for Rs.688.16 after two successive discounts of 12% and 8% respectively. what is its marked price ?
Options:
1. Rs.900
2. Rs.850
3. Rs.820
4. Rs.800
Correct answer: Rs.850
Q12. The given Bar Graph presents the scale (in 1000 kg) of a particular brand of tea by three outlets, A, B and C during the months Jan, Feb, Mar, and Apr, 2018.
by how much quantity is the average sale per month from B more or less than that from C ?
Options:
1. More by 1000 kg
2. Less by 1000 kg
3. More by 500 kg
4. Less by 800 kg
Correct answer: More by 1000 kg
Q13. In a stadium an athlete is running on a circular path with uniform speed during a practice session. The angle covered by him during one second is found to be 10° by a coach observing him from the centre of the circular track. What would be the measure of angle ( in degrees ) described by the athlete by an observer standing on the circle ?
Options:
1. It depends on the exact position of the observer on the circle
2. 5
3. 10
4. 20
Correct answer: 5
Q14. The simplified value of 7/3 of (3/5 ÷ 2/9 ) - (22/5 + 19/20 ÷ 1/2) is :
Options:
1. 1
2. 0
3. 1/2
4. 1/4
Correct answer: 0
Q15. In a triangle ABC, PQ is a straight line parallel to AC, such that Area ABC : Area PBQ = 3 : 1 Then CB : CQ is equal to:
Options:
1. √3/2 (√3+1)
2. √3-2/2
3. √3/2 (√3-1)
4. √3/2
Correct answer: √3/2 (√3+1)
Q16. The circumcentre, incentre, orthocentre and the centroid of a triangle are one and the same point. The triangle must be:
(a) isosceles (b) right-angled (c) right-angled isosceles (d) equilateral
Options:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (b)
Correct answer: (d)
Q17. The average of a number and its reciprocal is 4. The average of its cube and its reciprocal is equal to:
Options:
1. 244
2. 288
3. 142
4. 256
Correct answer: 244
Q18. For an examination of a practical based object, the total marks is 100. The break-up for theory, practical, project and viva voce is 40%, 30%, 20%, 10% . A candidate scored 80% in theory, 70% in practical, 60% in project and 50% in viva voce. What was her aggregate percentage ?
Options:
1. 72
2. 67
3. 68
4. 70
Correct answer: 70
Q19. If a : b : c = 1 : 3 : 5, what is the value of 4a - b + 2c / 3(a+b+c) ?
Options:
1. 10/27
2. 8/27
3. 1/3
4. 11/27
Correct answer: 11/27
Q20. The simplified value of 1.0025 + 6.25 x 10¯6 / 0.0025 + 0.95 is :
Options:
1. 1.0505
2. 1.0525
3. 1.0005
4. 1.0025
Correct answer: 1.0525
Q21. The Seven digit number 78 x 1 y 68 is divisible by 88. The value of (x + y) is :
Options:
1. 13
2. 10
3. 14
4. 11
Correct answer: 11
Q22. For Θ being an acute angle it is given that, 3(cosec²Θ + cot² Θ) = 5. Then Θ is equal to :
Options:
1. 30°
2. 60°
3. 0°
4. 45°
Correct answer: 60°
Q23. The diagonals of a rhombus are respectively 4 cm and 12 cm. Its area (in cm²) is equal to :
Options:
1. 8
2. 36
3. 12
4. 24
Correct answer: 24
Q24. Two chords AB and CD of a circle intersect at a point O inside the circle. It is given that AO = 1 cm, AB = 13 cm, CD = 8 cm. What is the ratio between the larger and smaller section among CO and OD
Options:
1. 5 : 3
2. 3 : 1
3. 11 : 5
4. 9 : 7
Correct answer: 3 : 1
Q25. A certain sum invested on compound interest grows to Rs. 8,000 and Rs. 27,000 in three and six years, respectively when the interest is compounded annually. what is the percentage rate of interest ?
Options:
1. 10
2. 0.5
3. 25
4. 50
Correct answer: 50
Evening - Shift (General Awareness)
Q1. Which of the following is NOT an anti-virus software?
Options :
1. Norton
2. Kaspersky
3. Avast
4. Linux
Correct answer: Linux
Q2. A savings fund in which both, the employer and the employee contribute regularly in the interest of the employee is known as:
Options :
1. Balanced Fund
2. Index Fund
3. Provident Fund
4. Mutual Fund
Correct answer: Provident Fund
Q3. Who was appointed as the new Director General of Inter Service Intelligence (ISI) of Pakistan in June 2019?
Options :
1. Rizwan Akhtar
2. Hamid Gul
3. Faiz Hameed
4. Riaz Hussain
Correct answer: Faiz Hameed
Q4. According to Randsatnd Employer Brand Research 2019 Report, which of the following has been rated as India's most attractive employer brand?
Options :
1. Amazon India
2. Microsoft
3. Samsung
4. Larsen and Toubro
Correct answer: Amazon India
Q5. The National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro Sciences (NIMHOptions :) is located in:
Options :
1. Kolkata
2. Indore
3. Bengaluru
4. Puducherry
Correct answer: Bengaluru
Q6. Who is the author of the book 'The End of Imagination'?
Options :
1. Chetan Bhagat
2. Amitav Ghosh
3. Arundhati Roy
4. Shobha De
Correct answer: Arundhati Roy
Q7. With which of the following sports is the Derby Trophy associated?
Options :
1. Snooker
2. Chess
3. Horse Racing
4. Golf
Correct answer: Horse Racing
Q8. Burzahom, the neolithic site, is located in ________.
Options :
1. Karnataka
2. Jammu and Kashmir
3. Mizoram
4. Goa
Correct answer: Jammu and Kashmir
Q9. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is associated with the election of the President of India?
Options :
1. Article 103
2. Article 78
3. Article 74
4. Article 54
Correct answer: Article 54
Q10. Who among the following was appointed as the first Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
Options :
1. Vithalbhai J Patel
2. G V Mavalankar
3. V Narahari Rao
4. M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar
Correct answer: M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar
Q11. 'Freedom in Exile' is the autobiography of :
Options :
1. Dalai Lama
2. Mahatma Gandhi
3. Nelson Mandela
4. Jiddu Krishnamurti
Correct answer: Dalai Lama
Q12. India and Asia's first Dolphin Research Centre will be set up in ________.
Options :
1. Haridwar
2. Patna
3. Varanasi
4. Devprayag
Correct answer: Patna
Q13. Which of the following rivers originates from Mahabaleshwar?
Options :
1. Tapi
2. Krishna
3. Cauvery
4. Sabarmati
Correct answer: Krishna
Q14. The Hirakud Dam is built across the river:
Options :
1. Mahanadi
2. Tungabhadra
3. Koyna
4. Damodar
Correct answer: Mahanadi
Q15. Which of the following companies is a Navratna company?
Options :
1. Coal India Limited
2. Engineers India Limited
3. Steel Authority of India Limited
4. Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Limited
Correct answer: Engineers India Limited
Q16. With reference to Remote Sensing Technology, what does LIDAR stand for?
Options :
1. Light Direction and Revolving
2. Light Distraction and Refraction
3. Light Dimension and Reflection
4. Light Detection and Ranging
Correct answer: Light Detection and Ranging
Q17. Which of the following is a ProKabbadi Team?
Options :
1. Delhi Capitals
2. Telugu Titans
3. Sunrisers Hyderabad
4. Mumbai IndiOptions :
Correct answer: Telugu Titans
Q18. The 1979 Cricket World Cup was won by _________.
Options :
1. Australia
2. West Indies
3. England
4. Sri Lanka
Correct answer: West Indies
Q19. In which of the following states is Ashtamudi Lake situated?
Options :
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Odisha
3. Kerala
4. Tamil Nadu
Correct answer: Kerala
Q20. Which of the followings, is NOT a Peninsular river?
Options :
1. Mahanadi
2. Narmada
3. Krishna
4. Alaknanda
Correct answer: Alaknanda
Q21. Who among the following first trOptions :lated the 'Bhagvad Gita' into English?
Options :
1. Charles Wilkins
2. George Yule
3. Max Muller
4. Vincent Arthur Smith
Correct answer: Charles Wilkins
Q22. Which of the following vehicles launched the RISAT-2B satellite in May 2019 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre?
Options :
1. PSLV- C41
2. PSLV-C42
3. PSLV-C26
4. PSLV-C46
Correct answer: PSLV-C46
Q23. Which of the follwing is a supercomputer developed by India?
Options :
1. Venngage
2. Onshape
3. Param Yuva 2
4. Pixir
Correct answer: Param Yuva 2
Q24. Which of the following temples is correctly matched with its location?
Options :
1. Baidyanathdham-Odisha
2. Trimbakeshwar-Karnataka
3. Mallikarjuna-Andhra Pradesh
4. Somnath-Bihar
Correct answer: Mallikarjuna-Andhra Pradesh
Q25. Who among the following was appointed as the first Viceroy of British India?
Options :
1. Lord Irwin
2. Lord Mayo
3. Lord Wavell
4. Lord Canning
Correct answer: Lord Canning
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