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Staff Nurse Exam Paper 2018 SSB DD and DNH with Answers
Q. 1 The purpose of anti-embolism
stockings is to:
• Decrease
the arterial circulation to the legs
• Reduce/Prevent
edema of legs
• Promote
warmth in the legs
• Decrease
the venous circulation from leas
Reduce/Prevent
edema of legs
Q. 2 The first line of intervention for
prevention of infection is:
• Washing
hands
• Administering
antibiotics
• Assigning
private room for patients
• Wearing
gloves
Washing hands
Q. 3. Which of the following is the reason
for intradermal injection to be used for testing allergic reactions?
• It
is less painful
• It
diffuses slowly
• Diffuses
rapidly
• It
is easy to administer
Diffuses slowly
Q. 4. Which of these parameters indicates
infection in a postoperative patient?
• Presence
of an indwelling urinary catheter
• Red,
warm and tender incision site
• Rectal
temperature of 37.8 °C
• White
blood count of 6.000 cells/cu.mm
Red, warm and
tender incision site
ESIC Exam Paper
Staff Nurse Feb 2019
Q. 5. A postoperative patient receives a
stat dose of injection Pethidine intramuscularly. After one hour, the nurse
checks on pain relief. Which step of the nursing process is the nurse using
here?
• Planning
• Evaluation
• Assessment
• Implementation
Evaluation
Q. 6. A patient with heart failure is on
diuretics. Which is the accurate indicator of such a patient’s health status?
• Fluid
intake and output
• Weight
• Vital
signs
• Urine-specific
gravity
Weight
Q. 7. Which route of drug administration
provides a rapid response in a patient?
• Intramuscular
• Sublingual
• Subcutaneous
• Oral
Sublingual
Q. 8. Which type of data does auscultation
provide?
• Objective
• Medical
• Secondary
source
• Subjective
Objective
Q. 9 The purpose of deep palpation is to
assess:
• Skin
turgor
• Temperature
• Organs
• Hydration
Organs
SSB DD and DNH
STAFF NURSE and NURSING OFFICER 27th Feb 2018
Q. 10. In which type of sleep do most
vivid dreams occur?
• Non-rapid
eye movement sleep
• Non-hibernation
sleep
• Hibernation
sleep
• Rapid
eye movement sleep
Rapid eye
movement sleep
Q. 11. Colour blindness is due to the
problem with:
• Lens
• Rods
• Aqueous
humour
• Cones
Cones
Q. 12. The type of seizures that involves
both sides of brain is called:
• Generalized
seizures
• Partial
seizures
• Secondary
seizures
• Primary
seizures
Generalized
seizures
Q. 13. A score of 3 in a Glasgow coma
scale indicates:
• Mutism
• Deep
coma
• Lethargy
• Fully
responsive person
Deep coma
Q.14. Which of these postoperative
assessments of a patient subjected to kidney transplant has to be reported
immediately to the physician?
• Serum
potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
• Urine
output less than 20 ml/hour
• The
temperature of 99 °F
• Serum
sodium level of 137 mEq/L
Urine output
less than 20 ml/hour
Q. 15. Genital herpes simplex increases
the risk of
• Cervix
• Vagina
• Uterus
• Ovaries
Cervix
Q. 16. Surgical repair of hernia is:
• Herniorrhaphy
• Hemiectomy
• Fistulectomy
• Laparoscopy
Herniorrhaphy
Q.17. A nurse caring for a patient
subjected to total laryngectomy should plan for:
• Alternative
communication method
• Keeping
tracheostomy cuff fully inflated
• Oral
feeds at intervals
• Supine
position for the patient
Alternative
communication method
Q. 18. Barrel chest is seen in:
• Kyphoscoliosis
• Rickets
• Pneumonia
• Emphysema
Emphysema
Q. 19. An elderly female with osteoporosis
is at risk of which of these complications?
• Bone
fracture
• Loss
of estrogen
• Dowager’s
hump
• Negative
calcium balance
Bone fracture
SSB DD and DNH
STAFF NURSE EXAM PAPER 27th Feb 2018
Q. 20. Vertigo is due to problem in:
• External
ear
• Middle
ear
• Tympanic
membrane
• Inner
ear
Inner ear
Q. 21. How should a nurse position a
patient for a colonoscopy test?
• To
lay the patient prone with buttocks elevated
• Lay
the patient in the knee-chest position
• Lay
the patient on his/her right side of the body with legs straight
• To
lay the patient on his/her left side of the body with legs bent
To lay the
patient on his/her left side of the body with legs bent
Q. 22. Which of the following listed drugs
is a proton pump inhibitor?
·
Sucralfate
·
Ranitidine
·
Famotidine
·
Pantoprazole
Pantoprazole
Q. 23. The most common adverse effect of
chemotherapeutic drugs is:
• Constipation
• Nausea
and vomiting
• Painful
mouth sores
• Frequent
diarrhea
Nausea and
vomiting
Q. 24. Positive Kemig’s sign is observed
in:
• Meningitis
• Nephritis
• Appendicitis
• Cholecystitis
Meningitis
Kerala PSC Staff
Nurse Exam Question Paper
Q. 25. Which laboratory investigation is
essential for a patient admitted in an emergency with severe angina and ST
elevation?
• Creatine
kinase level
• Hemoglobin
• Troponin
level
• Liver
enzymes
Troponin level
Q. 26. K Bind is given for patients with:
• Hyponatremia
• Hypokalemia
• Hyperkalemia
• Hypernatremia
Hyperkalemia
Q. 27. Which risk factor for diabetes
mellitus is non-modifiable?
• Advancing
age
• Obesity
• Physical
inactivity
• Poor
control of blood glucose level Advancing age
Advancing age
Q. 28. The clinical manifestations of
Cushing’s syndrome are?
• Anorexia
and weight loss
• Hyperkalemia
and peripheral edema
• Moon
facies and truncal obesity
• Hypotension
and dizziness
Moon facies and
truncal obesity
Q. 29. Colie’s fracture refers to the
fracture of:
• Humerus
• Olecranon
• Ulna
• Radius
Radius
SSB DD and DNH
STAFF NURSE EXAM Question PAPER 2018
Q. 30. Which of the below-mentioned signs
indicates obstructive jaundice?
• Elevated
urobilinogen in urine
• Clay-colored
stools
• Reduced
hematocrit
• Straw-colored
urine
Clay-colored
stools
Q. 31. The final step in the purification
of water on a large scale is:
• Disinfection
• Storage
• Filtration
• Boiling
Disinfection
Q. 32. The goal of Mission Indradhanush
launched by Government of India is to:
• Eradicate
poverty and hunger
• Improve
maternal health
• Vaccinate
all under-fives
• Achieve
universal primary education
Vaccinate all
under-fives
Q. 33. Deficiency of vitamin D in adults
leads to:
• Keratomalacia
• Osteomalacia
• Rickets
• Osteoporosis
Osteomalacia
Q. 34. A method used for individual health
education in the community is:
• Demonstration
• Roleplay
• Workshop
• Counseling
and interview
Counseling and
interview
Q. 35. Averting the transition of
disability into handicap relates to which level of prevention?
• Tertiary
• Primary
• Secondary
• Primordial
Tertiary
Q. 36. The minimum interval between the
two doses of tetanus toxoid injection for a pregnant woman should be:
• Eight
weeks
• Two
weeks
• Three
weeks
• Four
weeks
Four weeks
Q. 37. The measurement of the probability
of occurrence of a given medical condition in a population within a specified
period of time is called:
• Prevalence
• Incidence
• Pandemic
• Epidemic
Incidence
Q. 38. Inhalation of cotton fiber dust
over long periods of time results in:
• Siderosis
• Anthracosis
• Byssinosis
• Basassosis
Byssinosis
Q. 39. Hepatitis C is most commonly
transmitted through:
• Infected
blood
• Causal
hugging and kissing
• Sexual
contact
• Breast
milk
Infected blood
STAFF NURSE and
NURSING OFFICER 27th Feb 2018
Q. 40. Green-color-coded treatment under
Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness (IMNCI) refers to: SSB
DD AND DNH
• Urgent
referral
• Inpatient
treatment
• Outpatient
treatment
• Home
care
Home care
Q. 41. Inability to retract the prepuce to
reveal the glans penis is called:
• Hypospadias
• Phimosis
• Cryptorchidism
• Epispadias
Phimosis
Q. 42. Which of these is a cyanotic heart
defect?
• Patent
Ductus Arteriosus
• Ventricular
septal defect
• Atrial
septal defect
• Tetralogy
of Fallot
Tetralogy of
Fallot
Q. 43. In which position should the nurse
place the infant to examine the thyroid gland?
• Standing
• Prone
• Supine
• Sitting
Supine
Q. 44. Bitot’s spots are found due to the
deficiency of Vitamin:
• B2
• C
• A
• B1
A
Q. 45. The important aspect to be included
in the discharge plan of a child with cleft lip and palate is:
• Adherence
to antibiotic therapy
• Administration
of vitamin supplements
• Establishment
of adequate feeding pattern
• Application
of sterile dressing over the lip
Establishment of
adequate feeding pattern
AIIMS Nursing Officer
Question Paper
Q. 46. Which of these signs indicates
tracheoesophageal fistula immediately after birth?
• Passage
of frothy meconium
• Continuous
drooling
• Slow
response to stimuli
• Diaphragmatic
breathing
Continuous
drooling
Q. 47. Which of these assessments indicate
dehydration in a preterm neonate?
• Urine
output below 1 ml/hr
• Bulging
fontanels
• Good
skin turgor
• Excessive
weight gain
Urine output
below 1 ml/hr
Q. 48. Sway back appearance is seen in a
child with:
• Lordosis
• Talipes
• Scoliosis
• Kyphosis
Lordosis
Q. 49. An infant can sit steadily without
support at the age of:
• 6
months
• 12
months
• 8
months
• 10
months
8 months
SSB DD and DNH
STAFF NURSE and NURSING OFFICER 27th Feb 2018
Q. 50. Which of these vaccines are
recommended at birth according to National Immunization Schedule?
• BCG.
Hepatitis B, OPV
• BCG.
Hepatitis B, DPT
• BCG.
DPT, OPV
• DPT.
OPV, Hepatitis B
BCG, Hepatitis
B, OPV
Q. 51. From which of these populations
does a researcher select the actual study samples?
• Target
• Universal
• Accessible
• Scientific
Accessible
Q. 52. Which of these terms refers to the
extent a tool measures what it is supposed to measure?
• Stability
• Validity
• Reliability
• Specificity
Validity
Q. 53. Which of the following is a measure
of dispersion?
• Mode
• Standard
deviation
• Mean
• Median
Standard
deviation
Q. 54. A blueprint for the conduction of
study is:
• Research
design
• Research
hypothesis
• Pilot
study
• Data
collection tool
Research design
Q. 55. Which of these designs is used to
estimate the prevalence of osteoporosis?
• Factorial
• Cross-sectional
• Quasi
experimental
• Cross-over
Cross-sectional
Q. 56. What phase of drinking pattern is a
person experiencing if he/she uses alcohol as a stress reliever?
• Early
alcoholic phase
• Pre
alcoholic phase
• Crucial
phase
• Chronic
phase
Pre alcoholic
phase
Q. 57. Which defense mechanism is used by
a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder?
• Suppression
• Undoing
• Denial
• Repression
Undoing
Q. 58. Uncontrolled eating of food,
followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to get rid of excess calories,
is called:
• Anorexia
Nervosa
• Bulimia
Nervosa
• Binge
eating disorder
• Pervasive
eating syndrome
Bulimia Nervosa
Nursing Exam Model Question Paper A&P
Q. 59. Persistently repeating the same
word or idea in response to different questions is termed as:
• Mutism
• Word
salad
• Tangentially
• Perseveration
Perseveration
SSB DD and DNH
STAFF NURSE and NURSING OFFICER 27th Feb 2018
Q. 60. An effective alteration symptom
exhibited by a patient with severe depression is:
• Anger
• Apathy
• Social
isolation
• Tearfulness
Apathy
Q. 61. The goal of phototherapy in a
newborn is to:
• Decrease
the serum conjugated bilirubin level
• Prevent
hypothermia
• Decrease
the serum unconjugated bilirubin level
• Promote
respiratory stability
Decrease the
serum unconjugated bilirubin level
Q. 62. A late complication of molar
pregnancy is:
Shock
• Coagulation
failure
• Uterine
perforation
• Choriocarcinoma
Choriocarcinoma
Q. 63. The coordination between fundal
contraction and cervical dilatation is called as:
• Retraction
• Fundal
dominance
• Polarity
• Effacement
Polarity
Q. 64. Which of the following is exhibited
by a mother with postpartum depression?
• Hallucinations
• Uncontrolled
crying
• Delusions
• Confusion
Uncontrolled
crying
Q. 65. Which of these is a galactopoietic
hormone?
• Estrogen
• Oxytocin
• Prolactin
• Progesterone
Prolactin
Q. 66. After birth, the umbilical vein
collapses and forms:
• Ligamentum
arteriosum
• Ligamentum
venosum
• Ligamentum
teres
• Ligamentum
umbilicus
Ligamentum teres
Q. 67. Which of these is considered as
dangerous Placenta previa?
• Type
II anterior
• Type
I posterior
• Type
I anterior
• Type
II posterior
Type II
Posterior
Q. 68. A nurse should monitor intake and
output during oxytocin administration, because the drug
• Increases
thirst
• Causes
toxicity for kidneys
• Causes
water intoxication
• Induces
diuretic effect
Causes water
intoxication
Q. 69. An amniotic fluid index of less
than 5 cm indicates:
• Anhydramnios
• Polyhydramnios
• Hydramnios
• Oligohydramnios
Oligohydramnios
Q. 70. Which of these parameters should be
assessed during the first minute of life in a newborn:
• Weight
length, head circumference
• Colour,
respiration, heart rate
• Colour,
respiration, temperature
• Gestational
age, sex, muscle tone
Colour,
respiration, heart rate
Q. 71. Compression effect of gravid uterus
on the inferior vena cava results in:
• Carpal
tunnel syndrome
• HELLP
syndrome
• Supine
hypotension syndrome
• Supine
hypertension syndrome
Supine
hypotension syndrome
Q. 72. The third stage of labour ends with:
• Full
dilatation of the cervix
• Delivery
of placenta
• Two
hours after the birth of the baby
• Birth
of baby
Delivery of
placenta
Q. 73. Which of these actions is NOT
appropriate for a mother with early postpartum hemorrhage?
• Check
pad count
• Apply
fundal massage
• Insert
an indwelling urinary catheter
• Administer
oxytocic
Check pad count
Q. 74. In which type of abortion is the
fetus dead and retained inside the uterus for a variable period?
• Incomplete
• Inevitable
• Threatened
• Missed
Missed
Q. 75. A mother with a 9- month baby is
planning for a tubectomy. What is the ideal time for surgery following
menstruation?
Menstrual Cycle, Menses phase &
Abnormality
• Proliferative
phase
• Menstrual
phase
• Ovulatory
phase
• Secretory
phase
Proliferative
phase
Q. 76. Which of these is a sign of
previous child birth?
• Ovoid
uterus
• Rigid
abdominal wall
• Conical
cervix with round external os
• Gaping
introits
Gaping introits
Q. 77. Fetal heart sounds can be detected
using a Pinard stethoscope between
• 22-24
weeks
• 10-12
weeks
• 14-16
weeks
• 16-18
weeks
22-24 weeks
Q. 78. Which of these is an alarming sign
of pre-eclampsia?
• Deep
tendon reflexes 4+
• Edema
grade of +2
• Blood
pressure of 150/90
• Proteinuria
of +2
Deep tendon
reflexes 4+
Q. 79. Which information about uterine
contractions should be documented in the first stage of labor?
• Dilatation,
duration, and frequency
• Duration,
frequency, and intensity
• Dilatation,
effacement, and position
• Frequency,
duration, and position
Duration,
frequency and intensity
Q. 80. Which of these drugs is
contraindicated in a laboring mother with hypertension?
• Prostaglandins
• Oxytocin
• Magnesium
Sulphate
• Methergine
Methergine
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