The book SBI & IBPS Bank PO Solved Papers contains a solved paper for the 2014 SBI Specialist Officer Online Exam. The book also includes papers for other nationalized bank exams from 2010 to 2016.
Introduction:
The State
Bank of India (SBI) Specialist Officer Online Exam in 2014 was a pivotal
moment for aspirants seeking a career in the banking sector. The examination
aimed to identify skilled professionals capable of handling specialized roles
within the SBI framework. In this article, we delve into the intricacies of the
2014 SBI Specialist Officer Online Exam and provide a comprehensive analysis of
the solved question paper.
Section-wise Breakdown:
Reasoning
Ability: The reasoning section of the 2014 SBI
Specialist Officer Online Exam encompassed a variety of topics. Questions
on logical reasoning, puzzles, and data interpretation were prevalent.
Aspirants were required to showcase their analytical skills and problem-solving
abilities. Topics like seating arrangement, syllogism, and coding-decoding
demanded a strategic approach, testing candidates on their logical acumen.
Quantitative
Aptitude: The quantitative aptitude section gauged
candidates' mathematical prowess. Topics like simplification, data interpretation,
and mathematical equations were key components. The questions were designed to
assess the aspirants' numerical abilities, time management, and accuracy. A
thorough understanding of mathematical concepts was crucial for success in this
section.
English
Language: Proficiency in the English language was a
critical factor in the 2014 SBI Specialist Officer Online Exam. The section
included questions on comprehension, vocabulary, and grammar. Aspirants needed
to demonstrate a strong command of the language to secure a competitive edge.
Reading comprehension passages were diverse, covering a spectrum of topics,
demanding candidates' comprehension and interpretation skills.
Professional
Knowledge: The Professional Knowledge section
focused on assessing candidates' expertise in their respective fields.
Questions were tailored to evaluate knowledge related to banking, finance, IT,
law, and other specialized domains. Aspirants were expected to possess an
in-depth understanding of their chosen field, with a focus on the latest
developments and trends.
Solving Strategies:
Time
Management: Efficient time management is
crucial in any competitive examination. Aspirants were advised to allocate
specific time limits to each section and prioritize based on their strengths.
This ensured that candidates could attempt a maximum number of questions while
maintaining accuracy.
Conceptual
Clarity: The 2014 SBI Specialist Officer Online
Exam emphasized a conceptual understanding of various topics. Aspirants were
encouraged to strengthen their foundational knowledge in reasoning,
quantitative aptitude, and professional knowledge. This allowed for a more
comprehensive approach to problem-solving.
Practice:
Regular practice with mock tests and previous years' question papers was
instrumental in preparing for the exam. It familiarized candidates with the
exam pattern, improved their speed, and enhanced their problem-solving skills.
Additionally, practicing under exam-like conditions helped aspirants manage
stress and time constraints effectively.
Here are some tips for preparing for the SBI PO exam:
·
Review previous years'
question papers, focusing on critical topics
·
Review with short tutorials
·
Prepare section-wise tips
·
Analyze mock tests
·
Understand concepts
·
Learn shortcuts
·
Practice more
·
Limit guesswork
Here are some tips for preparing for the SBI PO essay:
·
Build a strong vocabulary by
learning a few words daily and using them in sentences
·
Read newspapers and standard
English magazines to improve writing skills
·
Practice essay writing on
recent and talked-about topics
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Corporation Bank PO Solved Question Paper 2010 - Reasoning Ability
Bank Recruitment - Bank Exam Question Papers -
Corporation Bank PO Question Paper: This is the solved question paper of
Reasoning Ability which was held for recruitment of Probationary Officers to
Corporation Bank in the year 2010
1. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DREO using each letter only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans: (2)
2. Pointing to a boy, Urmila said, "He is the son of my grandfather's only daughter." How is Urmila related to the boy?
1) Mother
2) Maternal Aunt
3) Paternal Aunt
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Ans: (5)
3. In a row of forty boys facing North, R is twelfth from the left end and T is eighteenth from the right end. How many boys are between R and T in the row?
1) 10
2) 11
3) 12
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
Ans: (1)
4. Mohit correctly remembers that his father's birthday is not after eighteenth of April. His sister correctly remembers that their father's birthday is before twentieth but after seventeenth of April. On which day in April was definitely their father's birthday?
1) Seventeenth
2) Nineteenth
3) Eighteenth
4) Seventeenth or Eighteenth
5) None of these
Ans: (3)
5. W walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 50 metres, again he took a left turn and walked 30 metres. How far is he from the starting point?
1) 80 metres
2) 100 metres
3) 130 metres
4) 50 metres
5) None of these
Ans: (4)
6. In a certain code BLACK is written as 'ALBKC' and SMART is written as 'AMSTR'. How is CLOCK written in that code?
1) CLOKE
2) CLOCK
3) OLCKC
4) OLCCK
5) None of these
Ans: (3)
7. What should come next in the following number series?
975311864229753186422975318642975
1) 1
2) 5
3) 3
4) 5
5) None of these
Ans: (3)
8. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 83416759 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged, and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
1) 3
2) 8
3) 4
4) 6
5) None of these
Ans: (2)
9. M is brother of K. T is sister of K. R is father of M. J is wife of R. How many sons does J have?
1) 2
2) 1
3) 4
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Ans: (4)
10. In a certain code 'GONE' is written as 'NOEGG' and 'LOAD' is written as 'AODLL'. How is 'SORT' written in that code?
1) ROSIT
2) ROTSS
3) RSTOO
4) OTRSS
5) None of these
Ans: (2)
11. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONTRAST each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans: (4)
12. In a certain code GONE is written as ‘5%2#’ and MEDAL is written as ‘4#3$@’. How is GOLD written in that code?
1) 5@%3
2) 5%@33) 5#@3
4) 5%#3
5) None of these
Ans: (2)
13. The positions of how many digits in the number 89154326 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans: (5)
14. Among A, B, C, D and E, each having scored different marks, B has scored more marks than E and D. B has not scored the highest marks among them. Who among them scored the second-highest marks?
1) B
2) C
3) E
4) D
5) Data inadequate
Ans: (5)
15. In a certain code language 'how old are you' is written as '9734' and 'he is old' is written as '2 75'. How is 'he' written in that code language?
1) 2
2) 5
3) 2 or 5
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Ans: (5)
Directions (Q. 16-18): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below:
528 739 846 492 375
16. Which of the following represents the sum of the first two digits of the highest number?
1) 7
2) 10
3) 12
4) 13
5) None of these
Ans: (3)
17. If the positions of the first and the second digits of each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the third digit of the second lowest number?
1) 8
2) 9
3) 6
4) 2
5) 5
Ans: (2)
18. If the positions of the first and the third digits of each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the middle digit of the third highest number?
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 9
5) 7
Ans: (3)
Directions (Q. 19-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(i) 'P × Q' means' P is sister of Q'
(ii) 'P + Q' means 'P is mother of 'Q'.
(iii) ‘p - Q' means 'P is father of Q'.
(iv) 'P ÷ Q' means 'P is brother of Q'.
19. Which of the following represents 'W is grandfather of H'?
1) W +T - H
2) W ÷ T - H
3) W × T + H
4) W ÷ T + H
5) None of these
Ans: (5)
20. Which of the following represents 'M is nephew of R’?
1) M ÷ T - R
2) R ÷ T - M
3) R × T + M × J
4) R ÷ T – M ÷ J
5) None of these
Ans: (4)
Directions (Q.21-26): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III & IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even' if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
21. Statements:
All rockets are poles.
Some poles are trams.
Some trams are ropes.
All ropes are tents,
Conclusions:
I. Some tents are trams.
II. Some ropes are rockets.
III. Some trams are rockets.
IV. Some poles are rockets.
1) Only I and II follow
2) Only I, II and III follow
3) Only I and III follow
4) Only I and IV follow
5) None of these
Ans: (4)
22. Statements:
All dials are mirrors.
All mirrors are spoons.
Some spoons are decks.
Some decks are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. Some decks are mirrors.
II. Some spoons are dials.
III. Some decks are dials.
IV. Some chairs are spoons.
1) None follows
2) Only I follows
3) Only II follows
4) Only III follows
5) Only IV follows
Ans: (3)
23. Statements:
Some houses are forests.
All forests are trees.
Some trees are hills.
All hills are buses.
Conclusions:
I. Some buses are trees.
II. Some trees are houses.
III. Some hills are houses.
IV. Some buses are forests.
1) Only I and II follow
2) Only I, II and IV follow
3) Only I, II and III follow
4) All I, II, III and IV follow
5) None of these
Ans: (1)
24. Statements:
Some lakes are rivers.
Some rivers are mountains.
Some mountains are books.
Some books are papers.
Conclusions:
I. Some books are rivers.
II. Some papers are lakes.
III. Some mountains are lakes.
IV. No paper is a lake.
1) None follows
2) Only either II or IV follows
3) Only II follows
4) Only IV follows
5) Only either II or IV and III follow
Ans: (2)
25. Statements:
Some tigers are horses.
All horses are goats.
All goats are dogs.
Some dogs are cats.
Conclusions:
I. Some cats are tigers.
II. Some dogs are horses.
III. Some goats are tigers.
IV. Some cats are horses.
1) Only I and II follow
2) Only I, II and III follow
3) Only II and III follow
4) Only II, III and IV follow
5) None of these
Ans: (3)
26. Statements:
All notebooks are pens.
No pen is a table.
Some tables are desks.
All desks are tanks.
Conclusions:
I. Some tanks are pens.
II. Some desks are notebooks.
III. Some tanks are tables.
IV. No tank is a pen.
1) Only I follows
2) Only III follows
3) Only IV follows
4) Only either I or IV follows
5) Only either I or IV and III follow
Ans: (5)
Directions (Q. 27-31): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: P, Q, R, S, T, V, Wand Z are sitting round a circle facing the centre. T is second to the right of R, who is third to the right of P. S is second to the left of P and fourth to the right of Q . Z is third to the right of V, who is not an immediate neighbour of P.
27. In which of the following combinations is the first person sitting between the second and the third persons?
1) VTS
2) TZS
3) QRV
4) PWQ
5) VRT
Ans: (5)
28. Who is second to the right of T?
1) S
2) Z
3) P
4) R
5) None of these
Ans. (2)
29. What is P's position with respect to S?
1) Fourth to the left
2) Fourth to the right
3) Fifth to the left
4) Sixth to the left
5) Third to the right
Ans: (4)
30. Who is on the immediate left of Z?
1) T
2) P
3) S
4) V
5) None of these
Ans: (3)
31. Who is second to the right of W?
1) R
2) Q
3) Z
4) S
5) None of these
Ans: (1)
Directions (Q.32-37): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below: W 7@ I R P 3 9 B A $ 4 H D 5© M E 2 % T * 8 d U Q N 1V 6 # K F
32. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediate followed by a symbol?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans: (1)
33. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fifteenth from the left end?
1) E
2) 5
3) D
4) 2
5) None of these
Ans: (1)
34. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol, and immediately followed by a consonant?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans: (2)
35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) T * 2
2) Q N d
3) 3 9 R
4) 6 V K
5) % T E
Ans: (4)
36. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the twenty second from the right end of the above arrangement?
1) H
2) #
3) T
4) @
5) None of these
Ans: (3)
37. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans: (5)
Directions (Q.38-43): In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered 1), 2), 3) and 4). You have to find out which of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark 5), ie 'None of these' as your answer. .
Letter : B A D E F H J K M I U 0 W F P
Digit/Sym. Code: 6 $ 7 8 # 1 2 * % 3 © 4 9 @ 5
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, their codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as ‘d’.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as the code for the vowel.
38. EKFUDH
1) 8*#©78
2) 1*#©78
3) d*#©78
4) 1*#©71
5) None of these
Ans: (2)
39. JMEIUD
1) d%83©d
2) 2%83©2
3) 7%83©7
4) 2%83©7
5) None of these
Ans: (1)
40. PEJDWU
1) 58279©
2) d8279d
3) ©8279©
4) 582795
5) None of these
Ans: (3)
41. DMEAKJ
1) 7%8$*2
2) 2%8$*7
3) 7%8$*7
4) d%8$*d
5) None of these
Ans: (4)
42. IBHWPO
1) 361954
2) 461953
3) 361953
4) 461954
5) None of these
Ans: (1)
43. UKPDMI
1) ©5*7%3
2) d*57%d
3) 3*57%©
4) ©*5%73
5) None of these
Ans: (5)
Directions (Q.44-49): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, * and $ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
'P © Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.
'P $ Q' means' P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q' means' P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q.
'P * Q' means 'P is neither equal to nor greater than Q'.
'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
44. Statements: D @ M, M $ B, B * R, R % T
Conclusions:
I. B * D
II. B @ D
III.T * M
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only either I or II is true
Ans: (5)
45. Statements: W © F, F @ D, D * K, K $ J
Conclusions:
I. K % W
II. D $ W
III. F * K
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) AII I, II and III are true
5) None of these
Ans: (4)
46. Statements: R * K, K © M, M % T, T $ J
Conclusions:
I. J * M
II. J * M
III. K © J
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only I and II are true
4) All I, II and III are true
5) None of these
Ans: (3)
47. Statements: R @ K, T © K, T $ M, M * W
Conclusions:
I. W % K
II. M©R
III. T©R
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only III is true
4) All I, II and III are true
5) None of these
Ans: (5)
48. Statements: T $ N, N % B, B @ W, K © W
Conclusions:
I. K $ B
II. K $ T
III. T % B
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) All I, II and III are true
5) None of these
Ans: (5)
49. Statements: Z % V, V * J, J © M, M @ R
Conclusions:
I. R % V
II. M % V
III. Z % M
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) All I, II and III are true
5) None of these
Ans: (1)
Directions (50-55): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : gone 93 over 46 84 now for 31
Step I : 31 gone 93 over 46 84 now for
Step II : 31 over gone 93 46 84 now for
Step III : 31 over 46 gone 93 84 now for
Step IV : 31 over 46 now gone 93 84 for
Step V : 31 over 46 now 84 gone 93 for
and Step V is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
50. Step III of an Input: 15 window 2993 86 sail tower buy Which of the following will be step VI?
1) 15 window 29 tower 86 sail 93 buy
2) 15 window 29 tower 86 93 sail buy
3) 15 window 29 tower 93 86 sail buy
4) There will be no such step
5) None of these
Ans: (1)
51. Input: station hurry 39 67 all men 86 59 How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
1) Four
2) Five
3) Six
4) Three
5) None of these
Ans: (2)
52. Step II of an input is : 49 zone car battery 56 87 71 down Which of the following is definitely the input?
1) car 49 battery zone 56 87 71 down
2) zone 49 car battery 568771 down
3) battery car 49 zone 56 87 71 down
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
Ans: (4)
53. Input: news 79 53 glory for 46 29 task Which of the following will be step IV?
1) 29 task 46 news 53 glory 79 for
2) 29 task 46 news 53 79 glory for
3) 29 task 46 news 79 53 glory for
4) 29 news 79 53 glory for461ask
5) None of these
Ans: (2)
54. Step III of an input is: 27 tube 34 gas chamber row7453 Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
1) VI
2) VII
3) VIII
4) V
5) None of these
Ans: (4)
55. Step II of an Input: 19 year 85 74 near gone 26 store How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
1) Three
2) Four
3) Two
4) Five
5) None of these
Ans: (2)
Directions (Q.56-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight students of a school. They study in Std VI, VII and VIII with not more than three in any Std. Each of them has a favourite subject from Physics. Geography, English, Marathi, Mathematics, Chemistry, Biology and Economics not necessarily in the same order. D likes Chemistry and studies in Std VIII with only H.B does not study in Std VII. E and A study in the same Std but not with B. C and F study in the same Std. Those who study in Std VI do not like Mathematics or Biology. F likes Physics. The one who studies in Std VIII likes English. C does not like Geography. A's favourite subject is Marathi and G does not like Biology.
56. Which subject does H like?
1) English
2) Marathi
3) Science
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Ans: (1)
57. What is G's favourite subject?
1) Biology
2) Physics
3) Marathi
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Ans: (5)
58. What is C's favourite subject?
1) Economics
2) Biology
3) English
4) Geography
5) Data inadequate
Ans: (1)
59. Which of the following combinations of student-Std Subject is correct?
1) C- VII- Economics
2) D-VI- Chemistry
3) G-VII-Physics
4) B-VIII- Mathematics
5) None is correct
Ans: (5)
60. Which of the following groups of students study in Std VII?
1) EAF
2) ECG
3) EAG
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Ans: (3)
Directions (Q. 61-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Following are the conditions for selecting Marketing Manager in an organization:
The candidate must
(i) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55 per cent marks.
(ii) have a postgraduate degree/diploma in Marketing Management with at least 60 per cent marks.
(iii) have post-qualification work experience of at least five 'years in the marketing division of an organisation. .
(iv) have secured at least 45 per. cent marks in the selection examination.
(v) have secured at least 40 per cent marks in the selection interview.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions except
(a) at (iii) above, but has post-qualification work experience of at least three years as Deputy Marketing Manager, the case is to be referred to GM-Marketing.
(b) at (v) above, but has secured at least 60 per cent marks in the selection examination, the case is to be referred to VP-Marketing.
In each question below, details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.05.2010.
Mark answer 1) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer 2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer 3) if the case is to be referred to GM- Marketing.
Mark answer 4) if the case is to be referred to VP- Marketing.
Mark answer 5) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
61. Nidhi Agrawal has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection interview and 40 per cent marks in the selection examination. She has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past eight years after completing her postgraduate degree in Marketing Management with 65 per cent marks. She has secured 59 per cent marks in BSc.
Ans: (2)
62. Navin Desai has secured 56 per cent marks in BA. He has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past seven years after completing his postgraduate degree in Marketing with 62 per cent marks. He has secured 62 per cent marks in the selection examination and 38 per cent marks in the selection interview.
Ans: (4)
63. Sabina Handa has been working for the past four years as Deputy Marketing Manager in an organisation after completing her postgraduate diploma in Marketing Management with 65 per cent marks. She has secured 45 percent marks in both selection examination and selection interview. She has also secured 58 per cent marks in BCom.
Ans: (3)
64. Manoj Malhotra has secured 65 per cent marks in BSc and 60 per cent marks in postgraduate degree in Marketing Management. He has also secured 50 per cent marks in both selection examination and selection interview, He has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past six years after completing his postgraduation in Marketing.
Ans: (1)
65. Varsha Akolkar has secured 59 per cent marks in BA. She has secured 42 per cent marks in the selection interview and 48 per cent marks in the selection examination. She has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past seven years after completing her postgraduation in Marketing Management with 57 per cent marks.
Ans: (2)
66. Utpal Goswami has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past five years after completing his postgraduate diploma in Marketing Management with 65 per cent marks. He is. a first-class Science graduate with 60 per cent marks. He has secured 45 per cent marks in the selection examination and 40 per cent marks in the selection interview.
Ans: (1)
67. Anindita Ghosh has been working for the past eight years in an organisation after completing her postgraduate degree in Marketing Management with 70 per cent marks. She has secured 56 per cent marks in BA. She has also secured 50 per cent marks in the selection examination and 45 per cent marks in the selection interview.
Ans: (5)
68. Samir Phukan has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past five years after completing his post graduate diploma in management with 65 per cent marks. He has secured 60 per cent marks in BCom. He has also secured 50 per cent marks in both selection examination and selection interview.
Ans: (5)
69. Nimisha Patil has secured 59 per cent marks in BCom. She has also secured 50 per cent marks in both selection examination and the selection interview. She has been working as Deputy Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past three years after completing her postgraduate degree in Marketing Management with 63 per cent marks.
Ans: (3)
70. Sadashiv Ghatge has secured 60 per cent marks in BCom. He has been working for the past five years in the marketing division of an organisation after completing his post- graduate degree in Marketing Management with 68% marks. He has secured 35 per cent marks in the selection interview and 62 per cent marks in the selection examination.
Ans: (4)
Directions (Q. 71-75): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered land II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer 1) if only Assumption I is implicit.
Give answer 2) if only Assumption II is implicit.
Give answer 3) if either Assumption I or Assumption II is implicit.
Give answer 4) if neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit.
Give answer 5) if both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
71. Statement: The largest domestic airlines corporation has announced new summer schedules in which more number of flights in trunk routes are introduced.
Assumptions:
I. More number of passengers may travel by this airlines corporation during summer months in trunk routes.
II. Other airlines companies 'may also increase the number of flights in all the sectors.
Ans: (1)
72. Statement: The chairman of the company decided to hold a grand function to celebrate silver jubilee during the next weekend and invited a large number of guests.
Assumptions:
I. The company officials may be able to make all the necessary preparations .for the silver jubilee celebration.
II. Majority of the guests invited by the chairman may attend the function.
Ans: (5)
73. Statement: The largest computer manufacturing company slashed the prices of most of the desktop models by about 15 per cent with immediate effect.
Assumptions:
I. The company may incur heavy losses due to reduction in prices of the desktop.
II. The sales of desktop manufactured by the company may increase substantially in the near future.
Ans: (2)
74. Statement: The school authority decided to rent out the school premises during weekends and holidays for organising various functions to augment its resources to meet the growing needs of the school.
Assumptions:
I. The parents of the school students may protest against the decision of the school authority.
II. There may not be enough demand for hiring the school premises for organising functions.
Ans: (4)
75. Statement: The local civic body has urged all the residents to voluntarily reduce consumption of potable water by about 30 per cent to tide over the water crisis.
Assumptions:
I. Many residents may reduce consumption of potable water.
II. Many activists may welcome the civic body's move and spread awareness among residents.
Ans: (1)
Directions (Q.76-80): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer 1) if the inference is 'definitely true', ie it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
Mark answer 2) if the inference is 'probably true' though not 'definitely true' in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer 3) if the 'data are-inadequate', ie from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
Mark answer 4) if the inference is 'probably false', though not 'definitely false' in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer 5) if the inference is 'definitely false', ie it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
Asia has become the growth centre of the world economy in recent years. Within the region, India and South Korea are the third and fourth largest economies after China and Japan. Though the Asian growth stories mainly revolve around India and China, South Korea has remained a key player for these' countries as one of their major trading and investment partners. South Korea adopted outward-oriented economic policies with the beginning of its first five-year economic development plan in 1962, which resulted in high growth and the integration of the Korean economy with the rest of the world. Subsequently, high and consistent economic growth made South Korea one of the high-income economies in Asia. Korea is still growing at a faster rate compared to other developed economies. India on the other hand adopted an import substitution policy since its Independence until the early 1990s. Since then India has introduced wide-ranging economic policy reforms and is moving towards market-driven economy. This has resulted in consistent high economic growth over the last one-and-a-half decades.
76. Only Korean economy is considered as robust by the international community.
Ans: (5)
77. Japan's economic growth over the last decade is the highest in Asia.
Ans: (4)
78. The 'Korean economy is traditionally different than the Indian economy in its approach .
Ans: (1)
79. The economic growth of India prior to 1990s was much higher than the present growth rate.
Ans: (5)
80. India and China together are considered to be the driving force of the Asian economy.
Ans: (2)
Directions (Q.81-85): In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Give answer 1) if only course of action I follows.
Give answer 2) if only course of action II follows.
Give answer 3) if either course of action I or II follows.
Give answer 4) if neither course of action I nor II follows.
Give answer 5) if both courses of action I and II follow.
81. Statement: There have been sporadic cases of stone throwing and damaging vehicles in the locality during the day following altercation between two local youth clubs last night.
Courses of action:
I. The local police administration should arrest all those who are caught committing these acts.
II. The local police administration should call a meeting of office bearers of both the clubs of the locality to bring the situation under control.
Ans: (2)
82. Statement: A huge truck overturned on the middle of the main road and blocked most part of the road, causing a huge traffic jam.
Courses of action:
I. The traffic department should immediately deploy its personnel to divert traffic through other roads.
II. The traffic department should immediately send men and equipment to-move the truck and clear the road.
Ans: (3)
83. Statement: Some workers of the company making diamond jewellery were caught while there were leaving the premises as they were trying to smuggle small pieces of diamonds hidden in their purses.
Courses of action:
I. The management of the company should immediately put on hold all activities in the premises till a fool-proof security system is in place.
II. The belongings of all the workers should thoroughly be searched before they leave the premises of the company.
Ans: (2)
84. Statement: A huge tidal wave swept away many fishing boats and hutments of the fishermen living along the coastline.
Courses of action:
I. The fishermen should henceforth be restrained from constructing their huts along the coast line.
II. The local administration should send a team of officials to assess the extent of damage and suggest remedial measures.
Ans: (2)
85. Statement: A large number of invitees who attended the marriage function fell ill due to food poisoning and were rushed to various hospitals located in the area.
Courses of action:
I. The government should ban such marriage functions till further notice.
II. The local hospitals should be advised by the government to provide best services to the affected people.
Ans: (2)
Directions (Q.86-100): In each of the questions given below, which one of the five answer figures on the right shouldc come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Problem Figures
86..JPG)
Answer Figures
.JPG)
Ans: (4)
Problem Figures
87..JPG)
Answer Figures
.JPG)
Ans: (5)
Problem Figures
88..JPG)
Answer Figures
.JPG)
Ans: (2)
Problem Figures
89..JPG)
Answer Figures
.JPG)
Ans: (1)
Problem Figures
90..JPG)
Answer Figures
.JPG)
Ans: (3)
Problem Figures
91..JPG)
Answer Figures
.JPG)
Ans: (1)
Problem Figures
92..JPG)
Answer Figures
.JPG)
Ans: (3)
Problem Figures
93..JPG)
Answer Figures
.JPG)
Ans: (4)
Problem Figures
94..JPG)
Answer Figures
.JPG)
Ans: (5)
Problem Figures
95..JPG)
Answer Figures
.JPG)
Ans: (2)
Problem Figures
96..JPG)
Answer Figures
.JPG)
Ans: (4)
Problem Figures
97..JPG)
Answer Figures
.JPG)
Ans: (2)
Problem Figures
98..JPG)
Answer Figures
.JPG)
Ans: (1)
Problem Figures
99..JPG)
Answer Figures
.JPG)
Ans: (1)
Problem Figures
100..JPG)
Answer Figures
.JPG)
Ans: (2)
IBPS-SBI Previous Years Question Papers download
Conclusion
The SBI
Specialist Officer Online Exam in 2014 presented a challenging yet
rewarding opportunity for banking professionals. A meticulous analysis of the
solved question paper reveals the need for a well-rounded preparation strategy,
including conceptual clarity, time management, and regular practice. Aspirants
aspiring to crack future editions of this examination can draw valuable
insights from this analysis to formulate a robust study plan and increase their
chances of success.
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