Government is an essential part of any country and so is this topic. This Government Quiz for UPSC by Governmentdailyjobs is focused on all topics related to the government for aspirants of these competitive exams like UPSC, SSC etc. So let us give this amazing Polity quiz on Indian Government for UPSC and other exams and check how much we know about our Government.
GK Quiz on Emergency Provisions & Governors of the States
Ever wondered how India navigates times of crisis and who steers
the ship at the state level? Put your general knowledge to the test with
this quiz on Emergency Provisions and Governors of the States! Brace yourself for
questions that will delve into the depths of India's Constitution, exploring
the intricacies of emergency powers and the roles and responsibilities of the
heads of states.
GK on Emergency Provisions
1. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can a National
Emergency be declared?
2. What are the grounds for declaring a Financial Emergency?
3. Who has the power to revoke a state of emergency imposed under
Article 356?
4. True or False: During a National
Emergency, fundamental rights can be suspended.
5. How long can a National Emergency remain in effect without
parliamentary approval?
Answers
1. Article 352
2. Threat to the financial stability or credit of the state
3. The President, on the advice of Parliament
4. True
5. Six months
GK on Governors of the States
1. Who appoints the Governor of a state?
2. Can the Governor dissolve the state legislature at their
discretion?
3. What is the role of the Governor in approving bills passed by
the state legislature?
4. Which state currently has the youngest Governor in India?
5. True or False: The Governor acts as the ceremonial head of
the state with limited executive powers.
Answers
1. President of India
2. No, they need prior approval from the President
3. Can either assent to the bill, send it back for
reconsideration, or withhold assent
4. Uttarakhand
5. False, the Governor has significant executive powers in
addition to being the constitutional head
Click here for General Knowledge Questions and Answers: GK Questions
GK Questions for You
1. Can you name the Governor of your own state?
2. Briefly explain the difference between President's Rule and
Governor's Rule.
3. Give an example of a real-life situation where emergency
provisions were invoked in India.
GK Quiz on Emergency Provisions & Governors of the States
Dear
Students, Governmentdailyjobs is presenting you a set of 10 MCQs based on
Emergency Provisions & Governors. These are topic wise questions for the
deep understanding of the particular topics.
Q 1) National emergency is declared under
which of the following articles?
a. Article 358
b. Article 352
c. Article 359
d. Article 360
Q 2) National emergency proclamation is
issued in case of?
a. Armed rebellion
b. External aggression
c. War
d. All the above
Q 3) Proclamation of emergency under article
352 is issued by which one of the following?
a. Prime minister
b. President
c. Defence minister
d. Home minister
Q 4) emergency under article 356 is imposed
by which one of the below?
a. Prime minister
b. Governor
c. Vice-president’
d. President
Q 5) Financial emergency is imposed under
article?
a. Article 354
b. Article 365
c. Article 367
d. Article 360
Q 6) In real sense the Governor of the State
is appointed by the President on the advice of the following…….
a. Prime Minister
b. Chief Minister
c. Vice-President
d. Chief Justice
Q 7) The Governor of the State can be removed
by which one of the following?
a. Chief Minister
b. Prime Minister
c. Union Home Minister
d. President
Q 8) Which of the following are the discretionary
powers of the Governor?
a. Selection of Chief Minister
b. Provide advice to the President regarding
President’s rule in the concerned state.
c. Returning back the bill to the State
legislature for reconsideration.
d. All the above
Q 9) Among which of the followings are
appointed by the Governor?
a. Advocate General
b. Chief secretary of the State
c. Vice-chancellors of universities
d. All the above
Q 10) Which one of the following article
deals with the Governor of States?
a. Article 150
b. Article 153
c. Article 165
d. Article 167
Answers:
|
Question |
Answer |
|
1 |
b |
|
2 |
d |
|
3 |
b |
|
4 |
d |
|
5 |
d |
|
6 |
a |
|
7 |
d |
|
8 |
d |
|
9 |
d |
|
10 |
b |
GK Questions and Answers: Election System in India & Election Reforms
GK
Questions and answers based on the Indian polity always play a crucial role in
the success of the aspirants of different competitive exams. Governmentdailyjobs
has published this set of 10 questions to serve these aspirants.
1. Which of
the following is not a feature of Election system in India?
A. Universal Adult
Franchise
B. Secret Voting
C. Reservation of
seats in the legislature for the members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes
D. Communal
Electorate
Ans: D
2. Elections
in India for Parliament and State Legislatures are conducted by.....
A. President
B. State Election
Commission
C. Governor
D. Election
Commission of India
Ans: D
3.
Members of Election Commission are appointed by........
A. President of
India
B. Prime Minister
of India
C. Elected by the
people
D. Chief Justice
of India
Ans: A
4. Which
article of the Indian constitution says that will be an election commission in
India?
A. Article 124
B. Article 342
C. Article 324
D. Article 115
Ans: C
5. The number
of seats reserved for scheduled caste in the Lok sabha is:
A. 59
B. 79
C. 89
D. 99
Ans: B
6. Which
Articles in the Constitution give provisions for the electoral system in our
country?
A. Articles
124-128
B. Articles
324-329
C. Articles
256-259
D. Articles
274-279
Ans: B
7. The
elections for Lok Sabha are held every:
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years
Ans: C
8. Which
among the following statements is/are false?
1. For qualifying
to the Lok Sabha, a person must be at least 25 years of age
2. A person can be
a member of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha at the same time
3. A person
belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe can contest elections from a
general seal also, and not just with the reserved seat
4. If a member of
either of the Houses votes against the directions given by his party, he can be
deemed to be disqualified
Code:
A. Only 1
B. Only 2 and 4
C. Only 3
D. Only 2
Ans: D
9. What is
the maximum allowed duration between the last session of the dissolved Lok
Sabha and the recalling of the Lok Sabha?
A. 2 months
B. 4 months
C. 5 months
D. 6 months
Ans: D
10. Which is
the smallest Lok Sabha Constituency in General Elections by area?
A. Delhi Sadar
B. Mumbai South
C. Kolkata North
West
D. Chandni Chowk,
Delhi
Ans: D
GK Quiz on Directive Principles of State Policy & Election Commission of India
Dear
Students, Governmentdailyjobs is presenting you with a set of 10 MCQs based on
GK Quiz on Directive Principles of State Policy & Election Commission of
India. Our team is providing you topic wise questions so that you can have the
full idea that what kind of questions can be asked in the exams.
Q 1. Directive principles of State Policy is
mentioned in …….. of the Indian constitution.
(a) Part I
(b) Part VI
(c) Part VIII
(d) Part IV
Q 2. Which of the following are listed as a
Directive Principle of State policy?
(i) freedom in the economic field for the
interest of the consumer and producer
(ii) Regulation of economic system of the
country to prevent concentration of wealth and means of production
(iii) To ensure decent standard of living and
facilities of leisure for all workers
(iv) To protect and improve the environment
and to safeguard forests and wildlife
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iv)
(d) (iii), (iv)
Q 3. Which group of the following articles of
the Indian Constitution contains Directive principles of State policy?
(a) 36-51
(b) 28-48
(c) 42-56
(d) 30-49
Q 4. Which of the following article of the
Constitution is directed to establish Uniform Civil Code?
(a) Article 45
(b) Article 39
(c) Article 44
(d) Article 40
Q 5. Which of the following Supreme Court
decisions stated that the Directive Principles of State policy cannot override
fundamental rights?
(a) In State of Madras Vs. Champakam
Dorairajan
(b) In Keshavananda Bharti vs. UOI
(c) In Minerva Mills vs. UOI
(d) In Unna Krishnan vs. State of Andhra
Pradesh
6. Which Article in the Indian Constitution
provides for an Election Commission in India?
a) Article 324
b) Article 128
c) Article 256
d) Article 378
7. Currently, there are how many members in
the Election Commission?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
8. What is the tenure of office for the Chief
Election Commissioner?
a) 5 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier?
b) 6 years or 60 years, whichever is earlier?
c) 6 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier?
d) 5 years or 60 years, whichever is earlier?
9. For the Election Commission, at the
district level, who acts as the district returning officer?
a)) District Magistrate
b) Police Commissioner
c) Tehsildars
d) None of the above
10. Who appoints the Chief Election
Commissioner of Election Commission?
a) Prime Minister of India
b) Chief Justice of India
c) President of India
d) Lok Sabha speaker
Answers:
|
Question |
Answer |
|
1 |
d |
|
2 |
b |
|
3 |
a |
|
4 |
c |
|
5 |
a |
|
6 |
a |
|
7 |
c |
|
8 |
c |
|
9 |
a |
|
10 |
c |
GK Quiz on Citizenship of India, Citizenship Amendment Act & Chief Minister of the state
GK
Quiz on Citizenship of India, Citizenship Amendment Act and Chief Minister of
State is brought to you by Governmentdailyjobs below. Take a look at each
question along with relevant explanation below.
1.
Which of the following
statements are true regarding the citizenship of India?
i) A citizen of India is anyone born on or
after 26th January 1950
ii) Anyone born before July 1, 1987 is Indian
citizen by birth irrespective of his parent’s nationality
1.
Only i
2.
Only ii
3.
i and ii combined
4.
None of the above
Ans. c
Explanation: A
person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July, 1987 is
citizen of India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents.
2.
Indian constitution took
the concept of single citizenship from?
1.
USA
2.
UK
3.
Australia
4.
Japan
Ans. b
Explanation: The
concept of single citizenship in India has been inspired from the United
Kingdom’s constitution.
3.
What is true about NRC?
i) It is a register prepared after the Census
of 1951
ii) It holds the data of each village, household
and was published in 1951
iii) NRC along with the Electoral Roll of
1971 is called Legacy Data
1.
Only i
2.
i and ii
3.
ii and iii
4.
All of the above
Ans. d
Explanation: The
National Register of Citizens, 1951 is a register that was prepared after the
conduct of the Census of 1951 in each village and house of India. It shows the
houses or holdings in a serial order and indicates against each house, the
number and names of persons staying therein. NRC along with Electoral Roll is
called the Legacy Data.
4.
Which committee gave the
idea of jus soli kind of citizenship?
1.
Constituent Assembly
2.
Motilal Nehru Committee
3.
Attlee Committee
4.
None of the above
Ans. b
Explanation: Motilal
Nehru Committee in 1928 came in favour of the concept of jus soli for the first
time.
5.
In which list of the Indian
Constitution is the Citizenship included?
1.
State List
2.
Union List
3.
Concurrent List
4.
None of the above
Ans. b
Explanation: Citizenship
is listed in the Union List under the Constitution of India.
6.
The Constitution defines
citizens as?
1.
Any person born in India
2.
Any person who spends more than 5 years in
India
3.
Any person who is born in India or his/her
parents are born in India
4.
Constitution does not define citizen
Ans. d
Explanation: The
Constitution does not define the term ‘citizen’ but entails the various
categories of persons entitled to citizenship in Part 2.
7.
Which article of the
Constitution contains the provisions of citizenship to persons migrated to
India from Pakistan?
1.
Article 5
2.
Article 6
3.
Article 7
4.
Article 8
Ans. b
Explanation: Article
6 provides for the rights of citizenship of certain people who have migrated to
India from Pakistan.
8.
Indian citizenship can be
acquired through which of the following?
1.
By descent
2.
By naturalization
3.
By registration
4.
All of the above
Ans. d
Explanation: Indian
Citizenship can be acquired by descent, naturalization and by registration. The
provisions for these have been listed in Part 2 of the Constitution.
9.
When was the Citizenship
Amendment Bill passed by the Parliament?
1.
2020
2.
2018
3.
2019
4.
2017
Ans. c
Explanation: The
Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 was passed by the Parliament of India on 11
December 2019.
10. Which
of the following statements is true regarding Citizenship Amendment Act 2019?
i) It amends the Citizenship Act 1955
ii) It provides for Indian Citizenship to
persecuted religious minorities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan who
are mainly Muslims
1.
Only i
2.
Only ii
3.
Both i and ii
4.
None of the above
Ans. a
Explanation: Citizenship
Amendment Act 2019 amends the Citizenship Act of 1955. Indian citizenship for
persecuted religious minorities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan who
are Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis or Christians but not Muslims. They
must have entered India before December 2014.
11.
Who appoints the Advocate
General of states?
1.
Governor of state
2.
Chief Minister of state
3.
Chief justice of the high court
4.
President of India
Ans. a
Explanation: The
Advocate General is appointed by the Governor of the respective state
12. Who
does the Chief Minister give his resignation to?
1.
Prime Minister
2.
Governor of the state
3.
Chief justice of the High Court
4.
President of India
Ans.b
Explanation: The
Chief Minister's resignation is to be accepted or rejected by the Governor of
the state. It is handed over to him/her by the CM.
13. Which
among the following statements concerning the Chief Minister is/are NOT true?
i) At his time of appointment, the Chief
Minister need not be a member of the state legislature
ii) The Chief Minister must always prove his
majority in the legislative assembly before his appointment.
iii) It is the governor who does the final
appointment of the Chief Minister.
iv) The Chief Minister can recommend the
dissolution of the legislative assembly to the Governor.
1.
Only i and iv
2.
Only ii
3.
i and ii
4.
iii and iv
Ans. b
Explanation: The
chief minister is elected through a majority in the state legislative assembly.
The Chief Minister after his appointment also has to prove his/her majority
whenever there is a floor test.
14. The
powers and functions of the Chief Minister of the state are analogous to which
of the following?
1.
President
2.
Prime Minister
3.
Governor
4.
Cabinet Minister
Ans. b
Explanation: The
Chief Minister of the state has powers analogous to the Prime minister of the
Union.
15. What
is the minimum age to become the Chief Minister of any State?
1.
30 years
2.
35 years
3.
25 years
4.
21 years
Ans. c
Explanation: To
become the Chief Minister one must be 25 years of age or more.
GK Quiz on Comptroller and Auditor General of India & Constitution of India
Dear
Students, Governmentdailyjobs is presenting you a set of 10 MCQs based on
Comptroller and Auditor General of India & Constitution of India. Our team
is providing you topic wise questions so that you can have the full idea of all
the probable questions on a particular topic.
1). Which Article in the Constitution on
India provides for the post of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
a) Article148
b) Article343
c) Article266
d) Article 248
2). Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG)?
a) Prime minister
b) Chief justice of India
c) President
d) Vice-president
3). What is the tenure of the office of
Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
a) 5 years or age of 60, whichever is lower
b) 6 years or age of 65, whichever is lower
c) 4 years or age of 65, whichever is lower
d) Age of 60
4). Who is the current CAG of India?
a) Shashi Kant Sharma
b) Rajiv Mehrishi
c) Vinod Rai
d) V.N. Kaul
5). Which of the following corporations is
fully audited by Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
a) Reserve Bank of India
b) Life Insurance Corporation
c) Air India
d) State Bank of India
भारतीय संविधान सभा: Click here for Indian Constituent Assembly
6). The constitution of India was adopted by
the Constituent Assembly on…….
a) 25 October, 1958
b) 26 January, 1950
c) 26 January, 1949
d) 26th November, 1949
7). Constitution of India came into effect
on………
a) 15 January, 1950
b) 26th January, 1950
c) 15 August, 1950
d) 26 November, 1949
8). Right to property according to the
constitution is………..
a) Fundamental right
b) Legal right
c) Social right
d) Directive principles
9). Which is the highest and final judicial
tribunal in respect of the constitution of India
a) President
b) Union Cabinet
c) Supreme Court
d) Parliament
10). The total number of Schedules in the
constitution are
a) 8
b) 12
c) 10
d) 14
Answers:
|
Question |
Answer |
|
1 |
a |
|
2 |
c |
|
3 |
b |
|
4 |
b |
|
5 |
c |
|
6 |
c |
|
7 |
b |
|
8 |
b |
|
9 |
c |
|
10 |
b |
GK Quiz on Anti-defection Law and Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
Take
the quiz based on Anti-defection Law & Central Bureau of Investigation. The
questions are based on the recent happenings in the country and may be put up
in various competitive exams.
1. Which of the following two statements is
true about CBI?
i) The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
is exempt from the Right to Information (RTI) Act
ii) Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is
a part of the Union subject, and not State or Concurrent subjects
1.
Only i
2.
Only ii
3.
Both i and ii
4.
None of the above
Ans. b
Explanation: The
Central Bureau of Investigation is not exempted from RTI. It is part of the
Union list and states have no control over it.
2. In which year was the Anti-Defection law
passed?
1.
1950
2.
1960
3.
1985
4.
2005
Ans. c
Explanation: The
anti-defection law was passed by the Parliament in 1985 and was reinforced in
2002
3. Who decides whether the disqualification
by anti-defection is to be done or not?
1.
Chairman of Rajya Sabha or Speaker of Lok
Sabha
2.
Prime Minister
3.
President
4.
None of the above
Ans. a
Explanation: The
decision on disqualification questions on the ground of defection is taken by
the Speaker or the Chairman of the House in which the case is raised.
4. Which of the following statements
regarding the implementation of anti-defection law are included in the
criteria?
1.
If an elected member voluntarily gives up his
membership of a political party
2.
If an elected member votes or abstains from
voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party or
anyone authorized to do so, without obtaining any prior permission
1.
Only i
2.
Only ii
3.
Both i and ii
4.
Neither i nor ii
Ans. c
Explanation: Both
the options stated above are correct.
5. Consider the following statements and
choose the correct one from below
1.
The anti-defection law gives for the first
time a clear cut constitutional recognition to the existence of political
parties
2.
The total number of ministers including the
Prime Minister in the central council of ministers shall not exceed 15% of the
total strength of the Lok sabha.
1.
i only
2.
ii only
3.
Both i and ii
4.
Neither i nor ii
Ans. a
Explanation: The
anti-defection law gives a clear cut constitutional recognition to the
existence of political parties.
6. Which amendment was responsible for the
Anti Defection Law?
1.
52nd
2.
51st
3.
55th
4.
56th
Ans. a
Explanation: The
10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution popularly referred to as the
‘Anti-Defection Law’ was inserted by the 52nd Amendment (1985) to the Constitution.
7. Which committee was responsible for the
exemption from disqualification in case of a split from Tenth Schedule
(anti-defection) ?
1.
Kelkar committee
2.
Dinesh Goswami committee
3.
S.K. Majhi committee
4.
None of the above
Ans. b
Explanation: Following
the Dinesh Goswami Committee's recommendations, there must be assent of at
least 2-3rd members for any merger to be termed as valid.
8. Which of the following statements is true
regarding a whip?
i) He/ she can expel a member at the time of
defection
ii) He has the power to expel a member of the
House in case of defection
1.
Only i
2.
Only ii
3.
Both i and ii
4.
None of the above
Ans. a
Explanation: The
whip of any party can expel the member in case he/ she observes a defection.
9. In which year the Central Bureau of Investigation
was established?
1.
1947
2.
1950
3.
1963
4.
1965
Ans. c
Explanation: The
Central Bureau of Investigation was established in 1963 in India and its
headquarters were located in New Delhi.
10. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
comes under the administrative control of:
1.
Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)
of the Ministry of Personnel
2.
Ministry of Home Affairs
3.
Ministry of Defense
4.
None of the above
Ans. a
Explanation: The
CBI comes under the effective control of DoPT.
GK Quiz on Indian Polity
Dear
Students Governmentdailyjobs is presenting you a set of 10 MCQs based on
different topics of Indian Constitution. These are very relevant questions for
the upcoming exams. So solve these questions and evaluate yourself.
1. Part IV of Indian Constitution deals
with……….
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Citizenship
c) Directive Principles of State Policy
d) Union Executive
2. To whom the Speaker of the Lok Sabha gives
his resignation?
a) President
b) Chief justice of India
c) Prime minister
d) Deputy speaker of lok sabha
3. What was the duration of Neelam Sanjeeva
Reddy as the president of India?
a) 1962 to 9176
b) 1967 to 69
c) 1977 to 1982
d) None of these
4. Who among the following does not give his
resignation to the president of India?
a) Attorney General of India
b) Governors of the states
c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
d) Lok Sabha Speaker
5. Lok Sabha speaker takes the oath of the
office from:
a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Chief Judge of Supreme Court
d) No oath
6. Which of the following is NOT the
fundamental duty for Indian citizens?
a) To safe guard public property
b) To protect and improve the natural
environment
c) To obey all the women
d) To develop the scientific temper and
spirit of enquiry
7. Which of the following is not the pillar
of Directive Principal of State Policy?
a) Democratic principles
b) Liberal principles
c) Gandhian principles
d) Socio-Economic principles
8. Which of the following articles is called
the “Soul of the Constitution” by the Dr. Ambedkar?
a) Article 32
b) Article 368
c) Article 19
d) Article 15
9. Which of the following article remains in
force during the National Emergency?
a) Article 32
b) Article 21
c) Article 19
d) Article 15
10. Article 18 of the Indian Constitution
deals with:
a) Abolition of untouchability
b) Abolition of Titles
c) Abolition of Child labour
d) Right to equality
Answers:
|
Question |
Answer |
|
1 |
c |
|
2 |
d |
|
3 |
c |
|
4 |
d |
|
5 |
d |
|
6 |
c |
|
7 |
a |
|
8 |
a |
|
9 |
b |
|
10 |
b |
Who is the head of state MCQ?
What is Article 352 MCQ?
Which amendment equipped president to impose national emergency on
any particular part of India?
राज्य एमसीक्यू का प्रमुख कौन है?
Tags
Which One of the Following Article Deals With The Governor of
States? The Governor of the State can be removed by which one of the Following?
500 GK Questions, Voters Day Quiz Questions and Answers, General Election Quiz,
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