The "IBPS SO IT Officer 2018 Question Papers [Solved]" is a valuable resource for candidates preparing for the IBPS Specialist Officer (SO) IT Officer exam. This collection includes the solved question papers from the 2018 exam, offering detailed answers and explanations for each question.
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these solved papers helps candidates understand the exam pattern, question
types, and difficulty level. It provides insight into key topics covered in the
IT Officer exam, such as computer science concepts, programming, and IT
applications. Utilizing these papers is an effective way to enhance exam
preparation, improve problem-solving skills, and build confidence for the
actual test.
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IBPS SO Previous Year Question Papers PDF for IT-AFO-Rajbhasha-Law-HR-Marketing Officers
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Officer Question paper pdf and IBPS SO Previous year paper with Model sample
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Papers Pdf 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012 and 2011 can be downloaded.
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Previous Year Question Papers of IBPS Specialist Officer I.T. Officer
(Scale-I), Agricultural Field Officer (Scale I), Rajbhasha Adhikari (Scale I),
Law Officer (Scale I), HR/Personnel Officer (Scale I), Marketing Officer (Scale
I)
General Tips for IBPS Specialist IT Officer Exam
Understand the exam format: Familiarize yourself
with the number of sections, question types, and time allotment for each part.
Focus on the syllabus: Thoroughly study the
official syllabus to know the exact topics covered in the exam.
Practice with mock tests: Regularly solve mock
tests to improve your time management and accuracy.
Strengthen your core skills: Brush up on your
quantitative aptitude, reasoning ability, and English language skills.
Stay updated on current affairs: Have basic knowledge
of recent developments in the IT sector and banking industry.
About the IBPS Specialist IT Officer Exam and resources for preparation
IBPS exam is conducted by the Institute of Banking
Personnel Selection (IBPS) to recruit IT officers for various public
sector banks in India. It typically consists of a preliminary exam and a
main exam, both of which cover topics such as quantitative aptitude,
reasoning ability, English language, and computer science and information
technology.
Here are some resources that you may find helpful in
preparing for the IBPS Specialist IT Officer Exam:
Official IBPS website: https://www.ibps.in/
Resources for IBPS Specialist IT Officer Exam
Official IBPS website: https://ibps.in/
Previous years' question papers (general, not specific
questions): These can be found on various exam
preparation websites and books.
Exam preparation books and coaching institutes: Many resources are
available to guide you through the syllabus and provide practice questions.
IBPS Bank IT Officer Question Paper: IBPS Specialist Officers Exam Question Papers
1. In a client /
server systems, the important measure of the performance of the server system
is ……………
(1) million Instruction per second (MIPS)
(2) clock speed (MHz)
(3) transaction per second (tps)
(4) pixels per seconds
(5) none of these
2. To set up a
bulletin board you need
(1) a smart modem with auto answers capabilities
(2) a telephone line
(3) a personal computer
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
3. The channel in the
data communication model can be ……..
(1) postal mail service
(2) telephone lines
(3) radio lines
(4) any of the above
(5) None of above
4. A file produced by
a spread sheet ……………
(1) is generally stored on disk in an ASCII text format
(2) can be used by the DBMS
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) can be regenerated
(5) None of these
5. The command that
adds a new field to an active database is …….
(1) MODIFY LABEL
(2) MODIFY COMMAND
(3) MODIFY STRUCTURE
(4) MODIFY REPORT
(5) MODIFY DATABASE
6. Which of the
following language is most used by the users to access data in DBMS?
(1) 4 GL
(2) dBASE
(3) SQL
(4) Oracle
(5) RBASE
7. Dirty bit for a
page in a page table ………….
(1) helps avoid unnecessary writes on a paging device
(2) helps maintain LRU information
(3) allows only read on a page
(4) All the above
(5) None of the above
8. In order to allow
one process to enter its critical section, binary semaphore are initialized to
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
(5) 4
9. Object is to class
as …….
(1) library is to book
(2) mother is to daughter
(3) Plato is to philosopher
(4) President is to Lincon
(5) None of these
10. The generic name
used for unexpected errors that occurs during the execution of a program is
(1) Infractions
(2) Exceptions
(3) Deviations
(4) Anomalies
(5) None of these
Questions: Answers
1:
3
2:
4
3:
4
4:
1
5:
3
6:
2
7:
1
8:
2
9:
2
10:
2
REASONING SECTION
Q. 1 – 5. In the following questions, the symbols Δ, Σ, @, © and # used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘X Δ Y’ means ‘X’ is neither greater than nor equal to ‘Y’.
‘X Σ Y’ means ‘X’ is not smaller than ‘Y’.
‘X @Y’ means ‘X’ is not greater than ‘Y’.
‘X © Y’ means ‘X’ is neither greater than nor smaller than ‘Y’.
‘X # Y’ means ‘X’ is neither smaller than nor equal to ‘Y’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given below them is/are definitely true?
Give answer (1) If only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) If only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.
1. Statements:
R @ J, F Σ J, C Σ F
Conclusions:
I. R © C
II. C = R
2. Statements:
W @ P, W # E, E Δ V
Conclusions:
I. P # E
II. V © W
3. Statements:
J © R, P Σ R, Z # P
Conclusions:
I. R Δ Z
II. J @ P
4. Statements:
G @ O, N © O, H # G
Conclusions:
I. O Δ H
II. G © N
5. Statements:
Q Δ B, M © B, K Σ M
Conclusions:
I. K © B
II. Q Δ K
Q. 6 – 10. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Three
ladies and four men are a group of friend’s i.e. R, M, T, S, L, W and Z. Each
one has a different profession i.e. Lawyer, Travel Agent, Air-hostess, Doctor,
Professor, Consultant, and Jeweller and each one owns a different car i.e.
Alto, Corolla, Santro, Lancer, Ikon, Scorpio and Esteem, not necessarily in
that order. None of the ladies is a Consultant or a Lawyer. T fs an Air-hostess
and she owns an Ikon car. R owns a Scorpio. M is not a Doctor. L is a Jeweller
and he owns Corolla. W is a Lawyer and does not own Alto. Z is a Consultant and
owns Santro. The Doctor owns Esteem Car whereas the Professor owns Scorpio. The
Travel-Agent owns an Alto. None of the ladies own a Scorpio.
6. What car does S own?
1.
Alto
2. Santro
3. Lancer
4. Esteem
5. None of these
7. Who owns the car Lancer?
8. What is the profession of R?
9. Who is the Doctor?
10. Who are the three ladies in the group?
Q. 11 – 15. In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three Conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
11. Statements:
All flowers are toys.
Some toys are trees.
Some angles are trees.
Conclusions:
I. Some angles are toys.
II. Some trees are flowers.
III. Some flowers are angles.
12. Statements:
Some pigeons are dogs.
All dogs are cats.
All pigeons are horses.
Conclusions:
I. Some horses are dogs.
II. Some cats are pigeons.
III. Some horses are cats.
13. Statements:
All tables are streets.
All streets are bottles.
All parrots are bottles.
Conclusions:
I. Some streets are parrots.
II. Some bottles are tables.
III. All tables are bottles.
14. Statements:
Some cartoons are boys.
All boys are windows.
All jokers are windows.
Conclusions:
I. All jokers are boys.
II. Some cartoons are windows.
III. Some jokers are cartoons.
15. Statements:
Some saints are balls.
All balls are bats.
Some tigers are balls.
Conclusions:
I. Some bats are tigers.
II. Some saints are bats.
III. All bats are balls.
16. In a certain code language RUSTICATE is written as ‘QTTUID3SD’. How would STATISTIC be written in that code?
17. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the fifth, the seventh and the tenth letters of the word OMNISCIENT which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be made, give ‘J’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Q’ as the answer.
18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
19. How many such pairs of letters are there in the ‘ENIGMATIC’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
20. How many such as are there in the following number series, each of which is immediately preceded by 1 or 5 and immediately by 3 or 9?
2 6 3 7 5 6 4 2 9 6 1 3 4 1 6 3 9 1 5 6 9 2 3 1 6 5 4 3 2 1 9 6 7 1 6 3
Q. 21 – 22.
(i) ‘S × T’ means ‘S’ is the brother of T.
(ii) ‘S ÷ T’ means ‘T’ is the father of ‘S’.
(iii) ‘S + T’ means ‘S’ is the sister of T.
(iv) ‘S – T’ means ‘S’ is the mother of T
21. Which of the following means R is the paternal uncle of B?
(a) B × Q ÷ L × R
(b) B × D ÷ J × R × K
(c) R × P ÷ S × ÷ B
22. Which of the following statements is/are superfluous to answer the above question?
23. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
24. In a certain code language, SAMBLE is written as ‘=/©Σ%’ and STAR is written as ‘=©/Σ’. How would TREMBLE be written in the same code?
25. If ‘Sky’ means ‘star’, ‘star’ means ‘cloud’, ‘cloud’ means ‘earth’, ‘earth’ means ‘tree’ and ‘tree’ means ‘book’, then where do the birds fly?
Q. 26 – 30. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
An organisation wants to recruit Management Trainees. Following are the criteria for such recruitment. The candidate must be –
(a) a graduate in any discipline with at least 65 percent marks.
(b) above 24 years and not above 30 years of age as on November 1, 2012.
(c) having a post-graduate degree/diploma in management or completed ICWA/CA/CS with at least 55 percent marks.
(d) having an experience of 0-2 years.
(e) ready to be on probation for one year.
If a candidate satisfies all the criteria except –
(i) at (c) above but is an engineer with minimum 70 percent marks his/her case is to be referred to AGM-PA.
(ii) at (d) above but has secured at least 70 percent marks in post-graduation his/her case is to be referred to the GM-PA7.
Based on the above criteria and information provided below, make a decision in each case. You are not to assume anything. If the data given are not enough to take a decision mark your answer as ‘data inadequate’. These cases are given to you as on October 31, 2012.
Mark answer (1) if candidate is to be referred to AGM-PA
Mark answer (2) if data given is not sufficient to take any decision.
Mark answer (3) if candidate is to be selected
Mark answer (4) if candidate is to be referred to GM-PA.
Mark answer (5) if candidate is not be selected.
26. Rajesh Chopra is a Post graduate in Management with 60 percent marks and has been working since June 2011. He was born on September 13, 1988. He is ready to work on probation of one year.
27. Roop Kamal is an Arts graduate and C.A> both with 66 percent marks. He has been working from January 2012 and is ready to join on probation of one year. His date of birth is January 3, 1988.
28. Indira Narayan is a Commerce graduate and post graduate in Finance both with 68 percent marks. She was born on September 26, 1988. She has been working from April 2011.
29. Darshan Patil is commerce graduate and post graduate in finance both with 60 percent marks. He is 26 years old and has been working from November 2011. He is ready to join on probation for one year.
30. Vanitha Mittal is Commerce graduate with 68 percent marks and she has completed her MBA with 70 percent marks in 2011. Her date if birth is August 30, 1988 and she is ready to work on probation for one year.
Q. 31 – 35. Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and –
Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
31. What is the code for ‘is’ in the code language?
I. In the code language ‘shi ti ke’ means ‘pen is blue’.
II. In the same code language ‘ke si re’ means ‘this is wonderful’.
32. Which train did Harish catch to go to office?
I. Harish missed his usual train of 10.25 a.m. A train comes in every 5 minutes.
II. Harish did not catch the 10.40 a.m. train or any train after that time.
33. How is Vandana related to Prabha?
I. Mallika’s sister Vandana is Rajesh’s wife. Prabha is Rajesh’s good friend.
II. Prabha is Rajesh’s brother’s wife and Vandana is Rajesh’s wife.
34. Who earns the highest among the five friends?
I. Priya earns more than Pinky and Sheetal and less than only Shilpa.
II. Sheetal earns more than Neetu but less than Pinky.
35. Who is sitting to the immediate right of Tanvi among five friends sitting around a circle facing the centre?
I. Ansh is sitting exactly between Bindu and Suresh and Neel is sitting to the immediate right of Suresh.
II. Tanvi is sitting exactly between Bindu and Neel and Ansh is sitting to the immediate right of Bindu.
Q. 36 – 40. Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:
Seven people N, K, T, B, M, W and R have their weekly offs on different days of the week i.e. Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday not necessarily in that order. Each of them has a liking for different cuisine i.e. Indian, Italian, Mexican, Chinese, Spanish, Continental and Thai, not necessarily in that order. K likes Thai food and gets his weekly off on Thursday. B likes Italian food and does not have off on Sunday. M has weekly off on Saturday and R has his weekly off on Tuesday. W likes continental food whereas the one who has weekly off on Monday likes Mexican cuisine. T does not like a Spanish cuisine and has weekly off on Wednesday. The one who likes Indian food does not have a weekly off on Tuesday or Wednesday.
36. Who has a weekly off on Friday?
37. What cuisine does R like?
38. On which day N have weekly off?
39. Who likes Chinese cuisine?
40. On which day does W have weekly off?
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE SECTION
Q. 41 – 45. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
41. 2º´² × 64 × 8¹´³ × 40.2 = 8?
42. 83% of 6524 × 12% of 225 = ?
43. 1×1/8 + 1×6/7 + 3×3/5
44. ? + 25 + 12 = 248.76
45. (73)³ = ?
Q. 46 – 50. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
46. 3 4 12 ? 576 27648
47. 4 12 60 420 ? 60060
48. 6 349 565 ? 754 781
49. 1 5 4 20 128 ? 10505
50. 89250 17850 7140 1428 571.2 ?
Q. 51 – 55. Study the pie charts carefully to answer the question that follow.
Percent of employees and women working in different Department of an organisation
Percentage of employees working in different departments
N = 8450 = Total number of employees
51. Which department has the lowest number of men working in it?
52. What is the average number of men working in different departments in the organisation?
53. What is the respective ration of number of women working in Administration department to the total number of employees working in that department?
54. Number of women working in the Finance & IT department together form what percent of total number of employees in the organisation? (round off two digits after decimal)
55. What is the number of men working in the HR department?
Q. 56 – 60. Study the table carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Number of application received (in hundreds) for six different specialist posts by six different banks in a year
| Specialist | P | Q | R | S | T | U |
| Post Bank | ||||||
| A | 25.5 | 38.4 | 43.7 | 18.8 | 28.3 | 40.6 |
| B | 35.3 | 44.2 | 42.0 | 26.6 | 31.2 | 35.9 |
| C | 38.8 | 41.1 | 38.6 | 23.9 | 24.4 | 25.3 |
| D | 26.6 | 39.6 | 47.2 | 15.4 | 38.9 | 28.5 |
| E | 29.0 | 35.5 | 30.3 | 29.1 | 42.0 | 20.9 |
| F | 32.3 | 33.4 | 37.8 | 22.4 | 30.3 | 41.8 |
56. Number of applications received for Specialist Post T by bank C is approximately what percent to that receive by B?
57. What is the respective ration of number of application received by Bank D, E & F for specialist post S to the received by Bank A, B & C for the same?
58. Which Bank has received the lowest number of applications for all Specialist post together?
59. What is the average number of applications received by bank F for all the specialist posts together?
60. Which specialist post had the maximum number of applicants from all Banks together?
Q. 61 – 65. Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions:
Populations of two states (In millions) over the years.
61. For State B the percent rise in population form the previous year was the highest in which of the following years?
62. What was the average population of State B (in millions) for all the years together?
63. What is the percent rise in population of State A in 2007 form the previous year?
64. What is the ratio between the total populations of States A and B respectively for all the years together?
65. Population of state A is 2005. What percent of its total population for all the years together?
66. Area of the rectangle is equal to the area of ten circle whose radius is 21 cms. If the length and the breadth of the rectangle are in the ratio of 14 : 11 respectively, what is its perimeter?
67. Shri Ramlal purchased a TV set for Rs. 12500 and spent Rs. 300 on transportation and Rs. 800 on installation. At what price should he sell it so as to earn an overall of 15%
68. Three girls start jogging from the same point around a circular track and each one completes around in 24 seconds, 36 seconds and 48 seconds respectively. After how much time will they meet at one point?
69. A 240 metre long train running at the speed of 60 km.ph. will take how much time to cross another 270 metre long train running in opposite direction at the speed of 48 km. Ph.?
70. Sarita started a boutique investing an amount Rs. 500000. Six months later Neeta joined her with an amount of Rs. 80000. At the end of one year they earned a profit of Rs. 18000. What is Sarita’s share in the profit?
71. A alone can make 100 baskets in 6 days and B alone can make 100 baskets in 12 days. In how many days can A and B together make 100 baskets?
72. Samir’s age in one-fourth of his father’s age and two-third of his siter Reema’s age. What is the ratio of the ages of Samir, Reema and their father repectively?
Q. 73 – 75. Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow:
A bucket contains 8 red, 3 blue and 5 green marbles.
73. If 4 marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that 2 are red and 2 are blue?
74. If 2 marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability both are green?
Q. 76 – 80. In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both equations and give answer if
Or the relationships cannot be established
76. I. X² – 7X + 10 = 0
76. II. Y² +11Y + 10 = 0
77. I. X² +28X + 192 = 0
77. II. Y² +16Y + 48 = 0
78. I. 2X – 2Y = -3.5
78. II. 3X + 2Y = 6.5
79. I. X² +8X + 15 = 0
79. II. Y² +11Y + 30 = 0
80. I. X = √3136
80. II. Y² = 3136
TEST – III
GENERAL AWARENESS
81. Which of the following is NOT a measure to control Inflation adopted by the Government and/or RBI?
82. As we all know the Wholesale Price index is divided in five main commodity groups. Which of the following is NOT considered separately as group while calculating Wholesale Price Index (WPI)?
83. In terms of the economics, the total value of the output (goods and services) produced and income received in a year by domestic residents of a country put together is called
84. Which of the following schemes was launched a few years ago to provide wage employment to the rural people in India (The programme is being run successfully in addition to MNREGA)?
85. Which of the following is TRUE about the Rajiv Gandhi National Drinking Water Mission?
(A) To provide safe drinking water in urban slums
(B) To provide sustainable safe drinking water in rural areas
(C) To provide sustainable and safe drinking water in those parts of the country where ample water is not available like coastal areas and desert areas.
86. Which of the following is TRUE about the India-USA agreement on developing gas resources?
(A) Both the nations will cooperate in exploiting gas hydrates in Krishna, Godavari and Mahanadi basins and deep sea of Andamaan.
(B) USA will help in establishment of an IIT exclusively for research and training in the areas of gas technology.
(C) India will send its experts to find out more gas reserves in various parts of USA particularly in deep sea of Alaska as they have special training in the same.
87. Rural sanitation programme of the Central Government is a very popular programme in India. Which of the following was/were the objective (s) of the same?
(A) To provide home sanitation
(B) To provide disposal of garbage
(C) To provide wage employment to poor of society in rural areas
88. Which of the following is/are true about the economy of China?
(A) China as a country is rich but Chinese are not so.
(B) China’s growth strategy has been based mainly on exports
(C) Despite attaining rapid growth and also bringing millions of people out of poverty, China remains a poor country.
89. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “What I require from Life”?
90. Which of the following is/are major reforms the Government has introduced in Banking sector?
(A) Dismantling the complex system of interest controls.
(B) Eliminating prior approval of the RBI for large loans.
(C) Introduction of capital adequacy norms and few other prudential norms
91. Which of the following is/are recent trends noticed in Indian economy that have raised concern about food security, farmer’s income and poverty?
(A) Slowdown in growth in agriculture sector
(B) Widening economic disparities between irrigated and rainfed areas
(C) Increased non-agricultural demand for land and water as a result of fast urbanisation
92. As per the reports in various newspapers/magazines etc. The agricultural productivity in India is low in comparison to other countries. What are the main reasons of the same?
(A) Lack of credit and marketing facilities
(B) Uneconomic holdings
(C) Outdated agricultural techniques
93. An insurance scheme for the agriculture sector was introduced by the Government of India. Which of the following represents the name of the same?
94. Which of the following ministries lay down the policies and programmes for the development and regulation of the country’s water resources?
95. Which of the following phenomenon is also known as climatic Migration?
96. The G-20 is grouping of world’s most powerful 20 countries. In terms of economic representation, what percentage of world’s economy is represented by G-20 nations?
97. India is a permanent member of which of the following organisations?
98. Which of the following commissions is formed in order to guard against predatory and collusive behaviour of the business organisations and protect the interest of business organisations in order to promote economic efficiency in the country?
99. Which of the following is correct about Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana?
(A) The scheme was launched in few backward states only.
(B) The aim of the scheme was to provide electrically to all villages having a population of 5000 and above.
(C) The scheme achieved its target in less than 10 years time.
100. Some agro processing units make an advance agreement with the farmers and decide to purchase the entire production of certain fruits, vegetables and medicinal plants on an agreed upon cost/price. This type of arrangement is known as ___.
101. India’s first fully dedicated university for Humanities is established in ___.
102. National food security management scheme was launched by the Government of India to achieve which of the following?
(A) Demonstration of improved production technology
(B) Distribution of high yield variety seeds
(C) To distribute fertilizer subsidy to farmers directly in cash
103. What is the full form of CFSA as used in financial sectors?
104. Which of the following terms is NOT used in Cricket?
105. ‘Malegaon’ which was in news recently is a town in ___
106. TRAT the name which we read very often in the newspapers is a regulatory body associated with which of the following sectors?
107. Iron is found mainly in which of the following states?
108. Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a Virus?
109. Angelina Jolie who was on a visit to India recently is associated with which of the following areas?
110. Which of the following dance forms cannot be called a classical dance ?
111. Bill Gates is associated with which of the following companies?
112. Which of the following is NOT a major IT company in India?
113. The present band approved by Reserve Bank of India between REPO and reverse REPO is
114. The first set of Fourteen Nationalized banks were nationalized in the year
115. Term LIBOR is related with which of the following?
116. Which are the two critical variables that generally go into monetary planning by RBI?
117. Who among the following was selected for the Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony in July 2013?
118. Tennis star Marion Bartoli who won the women’s singles title at Wimbledon 2013 announced her retirement on August 14, 2013. Bartoli is the native of
119. What was the rank of India in the Global Innovation Index 2013 published in July 2013?
120. The annual supplement to the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2009-14, announced by the Commerce and Industry Ministry on April 18, 2013 added 47 new products under MLFPS. What is the full form of MLFPS?
TEST – IV
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
121. To move the beginning of a line of text, press __ the key.
122. Computers use the __ number system to store data and perform calculations.
123. Physical components that make up your computer as known as ____.
124. Which key is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task?
125. Ctrl, Shift and Alt are called ___ keys.
126. The pattern of printed lines on most products are called ___.
127. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called?
128. Various applications and documents are represented on the Windows desktop by ___.
129. Passwords enable users to ___.
130. When sending an e-mail, the ___ line describes the contents of the message.
131. A(n) ___ is a program that makes the computer easier to use.
132. The ___ tells the computer how to use its components.
133. Files deleted from the hard disk are sent to the ___.
134. A ___ is a named set of characters that have the same characteristics.
135. A ____ predesigned document that already has coordinating fonts, a layout, and a background.
136. The instructions that tell a computer how to carry out the processing tasks are referred to as computer ___.
137. RAM can be thought of as the ___ for the computer’s processor.
138. C, BASIC, COBOL, and Java are examples of ___ languages.
139. An area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed is
140. A ___ is a microprocessor based computing device.
141. The taskbar is located ___.
142. Generally, you access the Recycle Bin through an icon located ___.
143. A MODEM is connected in between a telephone line and a ___.
144. Where is data saved permanently?
145. Changing an existing document is called ___ the document.
146. Which is not a basic function of computer?
147. The is the box that ___ houses the most important parts of a computer system.
148. The term ___ refers to data storage systems that make it possible for a computer or electronic device to store and retrieve data.
149. The term ___ refers to any computer component that is required to perform work.
150. A computer system includes
151. ___ is the maximum amount of data that can be stored on a storage medium.
152. The ___ is responsible for performing calculations and contains decision making mechanisms.
153. A ___ is a large and expensive computer capable of simultaneously processing data for hundreds or thousands of users.
154. Which process checks to ensure the components of the computer are operating and connecting properly?
155. Unsolicited commercial email is commonly known as ___.
156. ___ processed by the computer into information.
157. A web site address is a unique name that identifies a specific ___ on the web.
158. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be.
159. Editing a document consists of reading through the document you’ve created, then
160. The Internet allows you to ____.
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Q. 161 – 175. Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Agriculture has always been celebrated as the primary sector in India. Thanks to the Green Revolution, India is now self-sufficient in food production. Indian agriculture has been making technological advancement as well. Does that mean everything is looking bright for Indian agriculture? A superficial analysis of the above points would tempt one to say yes, but the truth is far from it. The reality is that Indian fanners have to face extreme poverty and financial crisis, which is driving them to suicide, at a time when Indian economy is supposed to be gearing up to take on the world?
Indian agriculture is predominantly dependent on nature. Irrigation facilities that are currently available do not cover the entire cultivable land. If the farmers are at the mercy of monsoons form timely water for their crops, they are at the mercy of the government for alternative irrigation facilities. Any failure of nature, directly affects the fortunes of the farmers. Secondly, Indian agriculture is largely an unorganised sector; there is no systematic planning in cultivation, farmers work on lands of uneconomical sizes, institutional finances are not available and minimum purchase prices of the government do not in reality reach the poorest farmer. Added to this, the cost of agriculture inputs have been, steadily rising over the years, famers margins of profits have been narrowing because the price rise in inputs is not complemented by an increase in the purchase price of the agricultural produce. Even today, in several parts of the country, agriculture is a seasonal occupation. In many districts, farmers get only one crop per year for the remaining part of the year, they find it difficult to make both ends meet.
The farmers normally resort to borrowing from money lenders, in the absence of institutionalized finance. Where institutional finance is available, the ordinary farmer does not have chance of availing it because of the “procedures” involved in disbursing the finance. This calls for removing the elaborate formalities for obtaining the loans. The institutional finance, where available is mostly availed by the medium or large land owners, these small farmers do not even have the awareness of the existence of such facilities. The money lender is the only source of finance to the farmers. Should the crops fail, the farmers fall into a debt rap and crop failures piled up over the years give them no other option than ending their lives.
Another disturbing trend has been observed where farmers commit suicide or deliberately kill a family member in order to avail relief and benefits announced by the government to support the families for those who have committed suicide so that their families could at least benefit from the Government’s relief programmes. What then needs to be done to prevent this sad state of affairs? There cannot be one single solution to end the woes of farmers.
Temporary measures through monetary relief would not be the solution. The governmental efforts should be targeted at improving the entire structure of the small wherein the relief is not given on a drought to drought basis, rather they are taught to overcome their difficulties through their own skills arid capabilities. Social responsibility also goes a long way to help the farmers. General public’s, NGOs, Corporate and other organisations too can play a part in helping farmers by adopting drought affected villages and families and helping them to rehabilitate.
The nation has to realise that farmer’s suicides are not minor issues happening in remote parts of a few states, it is a reflection of the true state of the basis of our economy.
161. What does the author mean by “procedures” when he says that ‘farmers do not get a chance of availing institutional finance because of procedures involved in it’?
162. Why have many farmers resorted to killing family members?
(A) It is difficult for the farmers to sustain their family’s livelihood.
(B) So that the killed family member may get rid of the persistent adversities.
(C) To avail relief package announced by the government to support the family of those who commit suicide.
163. According to the author why does the situation of agricultural sector remain grim even after making several technological advances?
164. Which of the following is not true in context of the passage?
165. What does the author suggest as opposed to providing temporary monetary relief to the farmers?
(A) To improve the entire agricultural setup in India instead of providing relief in the face of adversities.
(B) Providing the local money-lender with large amount of money so that small farmers can easily obtain loans from them.
(C) Empowering the farmers so that they can sustain a livelihood throughout life without having to face the desperation that adversity drives them to.
166. What are the adversities faced by Indian farmers according to the passage?
167. According to the passage why don’t farmers avail the institutional finance facilities?
168. According to the passage, how can general public lend a helping hand to the struggling farmers?
169. Why is the profit margin of farmers narrowing even after increasing the minimum purchase price?
(A) The minimum purchase price of the government is too low to make any profit.
(B) The quality of the inputs such as seeds and fertilizers is very poor.
(C) There has been a continuous rise in the price of agricultural inputs which adversely affects the profit.
170. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?
Q. 171 – 175. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
171. BRIGHT
172. GRAVE
173. WOES
Q. 174 – 175. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
174. SUPERFICIAL
175. NARROWING
Q. 176 – 180. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No corrections required’, mark (5) as the answer.
176. The employees offers to work overtime without any compensation to increase the profit.
177. He donated his entire wealth to an orphanage since he didn’t have a children of his own.
178. Psychologists are making best efforts to understand the reason behind unruly behaviour of adolescents.
179. Although he is reputed speaker, today his speech were irrational and full of ambiguities.
180. He was told for report back to the camp in the middle of the holidays when the ten tensions at the bordered aggravated.
Q. 181 – 185. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the error punctuation, if any).
181. He has been assigned (1)/ with the team (2)/ because he is (3)/ well qualified and experienced. (4)/ No error (5)
182. The company’s new project (1)/ cannot be launched (2)/ unless the approval (3)/ of the Board. (4)/ No error (5)
183. Instead criticizing (1)/ why don’t (2)/ you help (3) with the presentation? (4)/ No error (5)
184. Mr. Sethi was (1)/ not given a promotion (2)/ because he is (3)/ frequent absent. (4) No error (5)
185. Inspite of (1)/ so many hard-ships (2)/ Amar has managed (3)/ to success. (4)/ No error (5)
Q.186 –190. Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Thus rapid development is still unable to meet demand.
(B) Surplus fund from hikes in passenger fares and cuts in staff have made this possible.
(C) This demonstrates that it has been transformed into a modern high standard design and high service reliable system.
(D) However, China’s railways are not problem free.
(E) China’s railway has been able to generate the funds needed for the construction of new railway lines internally.
(F) For example at present about 2, 80,000 cars are requested daily to transport goods but only half the requests, can be met.
186. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
187. Which of the following is the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
188. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
189. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
190. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
Q. 191 – 200. In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words is suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Although he is no longer alive, (191) his influence can be felt in the studio (192) he created cartoons and feature films which made him known and (193) around the world. (194) Many people who work to create humour he took it very seriously. He would sit sadly (195) the funniest cartoon concentrating on some way to improve it. Walt Disney (196) the opinions of those working with him but the (197) Judgement was always his. He demanded a lot (198) people but he gave a lot too. When the economy was not doing well he gave everyone a (199) and though some (200) of this, it gave his employees morale a boost.
191. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
192. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
193. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
194. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
195. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
196. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
197. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
198. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
199. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
200. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
This question paper will be useful for the candidates for upcoming IBPS RRB Officers Exam 2015. This year exam will be held from 5 September 2015. All the best to candidates. Visit of Prepsure.com for more updates.
Part I Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
An organization wants to recruit system analysts. The following conditions apply.
The candidate must
1. be an engineering graduate in computer/IT with at least 60% marks.
2. have working experience in the field of computer at least for 2 yr after acquiring the requisite qualification.
3. have completed minim um 25 yr and maximum 30 yr of age as on 1.12.2013.
4. be willing to sign a bond for Rs. 50000.
5. have secured minimum 55% marks in selection test.
However, if a candidate fulfils all other conditions except
(a) at (1) above, but is an Electronics Engineer with 65% or more marks the case is to be referred to the General Manager (GM)-IT.
(b) at (2) above, but has an experience of atleast 5 yr as a Software Manager, the case is to be referred to the VP.
In each question below, detailed information ofcandidate is given. You have to carefully study the information provided in each case and take one of the following courses of actions based on the information and the conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.12.2013. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows
Give Answer
1. If the case is to be referred to VP
2. If the case is to be referred to GM
3. If the data provided is not sufficient to take a decision
4. If the candidate is to be selected
5. If the candidate is not to be selected
1. Ms. Suneeta is an IT Engineer with 60% marks at graduation as well as in selection test. She is working as a Software Engineer for last 3 yr after completing engineering degree and has completed 27 yr of age. She is willing to sign the bond of Rs. 50000.
2. Rakesh Rao is a Computer Engineer Graduate and thereafter is working as a Software Manager for last 6 yr. He has secured 72% marks at graduation and 67% marks in selection test. His date of birth is 5th December, 1984. He is not willing to sign the bond for ?50000.
3. Ramkumar is an Engineering graduate in computers with 78% marks passed out in 2007 at the age of 23 yr. Since, then he is working as a Software Manager in an engineering firm. He doesn’t want to sign the bond for ? 50000. He has cleared the selection test with 72% marks.
4. Nishant is an Electronics Engineer passed out in June, 2010 at the age of 22 yr. Since, then he is working as a Programmer in a software company. He has passed the selection test with 66% marks and is willing to sign the bond.
5. Kalyani is an Engineer with 72% marks in Telecommunication. She has just completed 27 yr of age. She has cleared the selection test with59% marks. She is willing to sign the bond.
Direction (Q.No. 6) Analyse the following passage and answer the question.
Some words are highly inflammable. Fusion is one them. You can get two sets of people into a war mode by just uttering the words ‘fusion music’. One set w ill breathe fire and say it violates the purity of music the other set will tell you earnestly that it opens up the borders of music.
6. From the purists perspective, the ‘war’ between the two set of people can best be
(1) categorized as an ideological conflict between two ideas
(2) termed as a conflict between generations the younger versus the older generation
(3) an attempt to preserve the core principles
(4) seen as an attempt of people at the margin to occupy centre stage
(5) seen as preserving the social identity of purists
7. Unlike other retail outlets, where items are purchased in any number of units the customer wants, in super-markets items are grouped in bulk packages. This bulk buying offers saving to the customer. The option to buy at wholesale prices by buying in bulk makes super-market a practical choice for budget-conscious consumers.
Which of the following assumption may be drived from the above information.
(1) Super-markets often have greater buying power and lower overhead costs, so they can offer a greater variety of products than regular retail outlets
(2) Super-markets are often more conveniently located and have better parking facilities
(3) The emergence of super-markets has caused many small retail stores to close down and thus eliminate competitions
(4) It is economically wise to buy single items since bulk packages seldom offer significant savings
(5) The financial savings from purchasing bulk packages may outweigh the inconvenience of being unable to purchase in any number of units that suits the customers’ needs.
8. Nations do not complete with each other in the way corporations do.
Which of the following most favours the weakness of the argument?
(1) Trade deficit is a sign of national strength, profits are a sign of corporate strength
(2) Increase in human development index improves national standing, increase in market share improves corporate standing
(3) Climate change negotiations lead to global improvement; CSR initiatives lead to image improvement
(4) Nations go to war to capture territory, corporates contend against each other to capture market share
(5) None of the above
9. Civilization has taught us to be friendlier towards one another
Which ofthe following most favours the strengthens of the argument?
(1) Cats are loyal to their children, whereas men are loyal to their communities
(2) Elephants move in a herd, whereas men live in nuclear families
(3) Lions protect their own territories, whereas men capture other men’s territories
(4) Nilgai and Cheetal stay together, whereas men of one race dominate another
(5) None of the above
10. The mushrooming of business schools in the country is a cause for shortage of faculty with Ph.D qualification. In addition, the higher pay and generous fringe benefits given by industry has encouraged qualified people to not seek academic positions.
Which of the following statements, if true, would tend to STRENGTHEN the argument?
(1) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is more than the average salary for faculty positions in some business schools in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(2) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is less than the average salary for faculty positions in a top business school in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(3) The average salary for recent Ph.D graduates in the industry is 20% higher than that in academics
(4) The rate of growth of salaries for the industry positions has been higher than the rate of growth of salaries for academic positions for the past three years
(5) None of the above
Directions (Q. Nos 11-13) Study the information given below carefully to answer the following questions.
In a certain code language the following lines written as ‘lop eop aop fop’ means ‘Traders are above laws’ ‘fop cop bop gop’ means ‘Developers were above profitable’ ‘aop bop uop qop’ means ‘Developers stopped following traders’ ‘cop jop eop uop’ means ‘Following maps were laws’
11. Developers are following laws’ would be correctly written as
(1) ‘bop cop uop eop’
(2) ‘lop bop eop uop’
(3) ‘oup cop lop aop’
(4) ‘gop cop uop qop’
(5) None of these
12. ‘qop gop cop eop’ would correctly mean
(1) profitable laws were stopped
(2) developers stopped following laws
(3) traders were above profitable
(4) were laws profitable traders
(5) None of the above
13. ‘aop qop bop’ would correctly mean
(1) following were above
(2) traders stopped developers
(3) developers are laws
(4) traders above stopped
(5) laws are stopped
Directions (Q.Nos. 14-18) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
14. Statements All petals are flowe?Some flowers are buds. Some buds are leaves. All leaves are plants.
Conclusions
I. Some petals are not buds.
II. Some flowers are plants.
III. No flower is plant.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Either II or III follows
(3) I and II follow
(4) Only III follows
(5) None of the above
15. Statements Some pens are keys. Some keys are locks. All locks are cards. No card is paper.
Conclusions
I. No lock is paper.
II. Some cards are keys.
III. Some keys are not paper.
(1) I and II follow
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) All follow
(5) None follows
16. Statements Some pearls are gems. All gems are diamonds. No diamond is stone. Some stones are corals.
Conclusions
I. Some stones are pearls.
II. Some corals being diamond is a possibility.
III. No stone is pearl.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Either I or III follows
(4) I and II follow
(5) None of these
17. Statements Some apartments are flats. Some flats are buildings. All buildings are bungalows. All bungalows are gardens.
Conclusions
I. All apartments being building is a possibility
II. All bungalows are not buildings.
III. No flat is garden.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Either I or III follows
(4) II and III follow
(5) Only II follows
18. Statements All chairs are tables. All tables are bottles. Some bottles are ja?No jar is bucket.
Conclusions
I. Some tables being jar is a possibility.
II. Some bottles are chairs.
III. Some bottles are not bucket.
(1) Only I follows
(2) I and II follow
(3) All follow
(4) Only II follows
(5) None of these
19. A person starts from point P in East and moves 12 m to point Q. Then, he moves right 8 m to point R. Again he moves right for 6m to point S. Then, he moves 6 m in the North to point T. Finally from there he goes to left for 6 m to point U. Which of three point he would form a triangle whose all the angles are less than 90 ?
(1) PTQ
(2) QTR
(3) UTS
(4) TSR
(5) SQR
Directions (Q.Nos. 20-25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing either the centre or outside. Each one of them belongs to a different department viz. Finance, Marketing Sales, HR, Corporate Finance, Investment Banking and Operations but not necessarily in the same order. C sits third to the right of C.G faces the centre. Only one person sits between C and the person working in the HR department immediate neighbours of C face outside. Only one person sits between F and D. Both F and D face the centre. D does not work in the HR department. A works in Investment Banking Department. A faces the centre. Two people sit between the persons who work in investment Banking and Marketing Departments. The person who works in Corporate Finance sits to the immediate left of E. C faces same direction as E. The person who works in corporate finance sits to the immediate left of the person who works for Operations department.
20. For which of the following departments does B work?
(1) Finance
(2) Marketing
(3) HR
(4) Corporate Finance
(5) Operations
21. What is position of B with respect to the person who works for Sales department?
(1) Immediate right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the right
(4) Second to the left
(5) Fourth to the right
22. Who sits to the immediate right of E?
(1) The person who works for Marketing department
(2) C
(3) B
(4) The person who works for HR department
(5) A
23. Who amongst the following sits exactly between C and the person who works for HR department?
(1) B
(2) The person who works for Marketing department
(3) The person who works for Operations department
(4) D
(5) G
24. Who amongst the following sit between the persons who work for Marketing and Investment Banking departments when counted for the left hand side of the person working for Marketing department?
(1 )F and G
(2) E and C
(3) C and B
(4) F and D
(5) B and D
25. How many people sit between the person who works for Operations department and A, when counted from the right hand side of A?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four
Directions (Q.Nos. 26-30) In these questions the symbols #, $, % and ★ are used with different meanings as follow
‘A @ B ‘ means ‘A is not smaller then B’.
A # B ‘ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’.
A $ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.
A % B’ means A is not greater than B’.
‘A ★ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’.
In each questions, four statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II and III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion (s) is/are definitely true?
26. Statements V $ Y, Y @ Z, Z % X, X # T
Conclusions
I. T # Z
II. X # Y
III. Z ★ Y
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) II and III follow
(4) I and II follow
(5) Only III follows
27. Statements R @J , J % F, F ★ E, E % M
Conclusions
I. M # J
II. F % M
HI. M ★ R
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) I and II follow
(5) All follow
28. Statements H # R , R @ L, L ★ W, W % F
Conclusions
I. H # J
II. F # L
III. H $ F
(1) Only I follows
(2) I and II follow
(3) II and III follow
(4) Either I or II follows
(5) All follow
29. Statements M # K, M $ F, F % Q, Q ★ H
Conclusions I. H # K
II. Q # K
III. Q @ M
(1) I and II follow
(2) Either I or II follows
(3) All follow
(4) II and III follow
(5) None of the above
30. Statements D ★ Q , Q $ L , L #T, T % H
Conclusions
I. D ★ L
II. L @ H
III. H # L
(1) Only I follows
(2) I and II follow
(3) Either II or III follows
(4) All follow
(5) None follow
31. In a code language ‘PROVIDE’ is written as ‘MULYFGB’, then what will be code for ‘BECAUSE’ in same languages
(1) YZHDRVB
(2) ZHYDRVB
(3) YHZDRVB
(4) ZYDHVBR
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 32-36) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer
(1) If the data is Statements I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(2) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the date in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(3) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
(4) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
(5) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
32. How many children are there in the group if no two children have same weight?
Statements
I. Sahil is fifth from the top in order of weight if all the children in the group were arranged in descending order.
II. Ramesh, who in heavier than 14 children in the group is immediately next to Sahil in weight.
33. What is the code for ‘healthy’ in the code language?
Statements
I. In the code language ‘eat healthy food’ is written as ‘ka ma re’.
II. In code language ‘food for healthy people’ is written as ‘ta ma jo re’.
34. How many brothers does ‘H ’ have ?
Statements
I. ‘H ’ is sister of ‘K’ who is son of ‘T’
II. ‘T ‘ is mother of‘ K’ who is brother of ‘H ’.
35. Who among J,T,W,R and Q reached the office first ?
Statements
I. J reached before Q, R and T but after W.
II. Q reached before R but after W.
36. Village ‘F’ is in which direction with respect to village ‘K ’?
Statements
I. Village ‘J ’ is to the East of village ‘F’ and to the North of village ‘K’.
II. Village ‘R ’, which is to the South of village ‘F’ is to the West of village ‘K’.
37. The increase in the number of newspaper articles exposed as fabrications serves to bolster the contention that publishers are more interested in boosting circulation than in printing the truth. Even minor publications have staff to check such obvious fraud.
Which of the following may be the assumption of the given argument?
(1) Newspaper stories exposed as fabrication are a recent phenomenon
(2) Everything a newspaper print must be factually verifiable
(3) Fact checking is more comprehensive for minor publications that for major ones
(4) The publishers of newspapers are the people who decide what to print in their newspapers
(5) None of the above
38. The rate of violent crime in this state is upto 30% from last year. The fault lies entirely in our system of justice. Recently our judges’ sentences have been so lenient that criminals can now do almost anything without fear of a long prison term.
The argument above would be weakened if it were true that
(1) 85% of the other States in the nation have lower crime rates than does this state
(2) white-collar crime in this state has also increased by over 25% in the last year
(3) 35% of the police in this state have been laid off in the last year due to budget cuts
(4) polls show that 65% of the population in this state opposes capital punishment
(5) None of the above
39. All German philosophers, except for Marx, are idealists.
From which of the following can the statement above be most properly inferred?
(1) Except for Marx, if someone is an idealist, then he or she is a philosopher, as long as he German
(2) Marx is the only non-German philosopher who is an idealist
(3) If a German is an idealist, then he or she is a philosopher, as long as he or she is not Marx
(4) Aside from the philosopher Marx, If someone is a German, then he or she is an idealist
(5) None of the above
40. During the SARS days, about 23,500 doctors who had treated SARS sufferers died and about 23,670 doctors who had not engaged in treatment for SARS sufferers died. On the basis of those figures, it can be concluded that it was not much more dangerous to participate in SARS treatment during the SARS day than it was not to participate in SARS treatment.
Which of the following would reveal most clearly the absurdity of the conclusion drawn above?
(1) Counting deaths among doctors who had participated in SARS treatment in addition to deaths among doctors who had not participated is SARS treatment
(2) Expressing the difference between the numbers of death among doctors who had treated SARS sufferers and doctors who had not treated SARS suffers as a percentage of the total number of deaths
(3) Separating deaths caused by accidents during the treatment to SARS suffers from deaths caused by infect of SARS suffers
(4) Comparing death rates per thousand members of each
group rather than comparing total numbers of deaths
(5) None of the above
Directions (Q .Nos. 41-44) Read the following passage carefully and answer the Question given below it.
Six friends Abhishek, Deepak, Mridul, Pritam, Ranjan and Salil married within a year in the months of February, April, July, September, November and December and in the cities of Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata, but not necessarily following the above order. The brides’ names were Geetika, Jasmine, Hema, Brinda, Ipsita and Veena, once again not following any order. The following are some facts about their weddings.
(i) M ridul’s wedding took place in Chennai, however he was not married to Geetika or Veena
(ii) Abhishek’s wedding took place in Ahmedabad and Ranjan’s in Delhi; however neither of them was married to Jasmine or Brinda
(iii) The wedding in Kolkata took place in February
(iv) Hema’s wedding took place in April, but not in Ahmedabad
(v) Geetika and Ipsita got married in February and November and in Chennai and Kolkata but not following the above order
(vi) Pritam visited Bengaluru and Kolkata only after his marriage in December
(vii) Salil was married to Jasmine to September
41. Hema’s husband is
(1) Abhishek
(2) Deepak
(3) Ranjan
(4) Pritam
(5) Mridul
42. Deepak’s wedding took place in
(1) Bengaluru
(2) Mumbai
(3) Kolkata
(4) Delhi
(5) Chennai
43. In Mumbai, the wedding of one of the friends took place in the month of
(1) April
(2) September
(3) November
(4) December
(5) July
44. Salil’s wedding was held in
(1) Bengaluru
(2) Chennai
(3) Kolkata
(4) Delhi
(5) Mumbai
Directions (Q .Nos. 45-50) Given an input line the machine arranges the words and numbers in steps in a systematic manner as illustrated below
Input line 59 dress fine shine 32 66 72 offer
Step I 72 56 dress fine shine 32 66 offer
Step II 72 shine 56 dress fine 32 66 offer
Step III 72 shine 66 56 dress fine 32 offer
Step IV 72 shine 66 offer 56 dress fine 32
Step V 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine dress 32
Step VI 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine 32 dress
Step VI is the last step and the output in Step VI is the final output.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
45. Step IV of an input is ‘62 sound 56 sleep roam present 33 49’. W hat will be the input definitely?
(1) Sound 62 sleep 56 roam present 33 49
(2) Sleep sound 62 56 roam present 33 49
(3) 62 Sound sleep 56 roam present 33 49
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the above
46. Which of the following will be the third step for input ‘jockey firm 36 43 growth chart 22 45 ?
(1) 45 jockey 43 growth firm 36 chart 22
(2) 45 jockey 43 firm growth 36 chart 22
(3) 45 jockey 43 growth 36 firm chart 22
(4) 45 jockey 43 firm 36 growth chart 22
(5) None of the above
47. Step II of an input is ‘53’ window 42 50 door lock key 36’. How many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement?
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six
(5) None of these
48. What will be the fifth step of an input whose first step is ‘85 journey train 36 54 daily 28 mansion’?
(1) 85 train 54 mansion 28 journey daily 36
(2) 85 train 54 mansion journey 36 daily 28
(3) 85 train 54 mansion 36 journey daily 28
(4) There is no such step
(5) None of the above
49. Which step will be the last step for an input whose second step is ‘63’ Sour 18 56 grapes healthy 32 rise’?
(1) IV
(2) V
(3) VIII
(4) VII
(5) None of these
50. Which word/number will be sixth from right in step fifth whose second step is ‘63 Sour 18 56 grapes healthy 32 rise’?
(1) Rise
(2)56
(3) Sour
(4)32
(5)18
Part II English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-58) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer through the wealth destruction already taking place in the U.S as a result of the financial crisis. Stock markets tumbled as exports plunged and economic growth deteriorated. Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere looked set to bust as credit tightened and buyers evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia swung back to greed as the region shows signs of recovery and property and stock prices are soaring in many parts of Asia. Why should this sharp Asian turnaround be greeted with skepticism? Higher asset prices mean households feel wealthier and better able to spend, which could further fuel the region’s nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia could soon find itself saddled with overheated markets similar to the U.S. housing market. In short, the world has not changed, it has just moved placed. The incipient bubble is being created by government policy. In response to the global credit crunch of 2008. Policy makers in Asia slashed interest rates and flooded financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep loans flowing and economies growing. These steps were logical for central bankers striving to reverse a deepening economic crisis. But there is evidence that there is too much easy money around. It’s winding up in stocks and real estate, pushing prices up too far and too fast for the undenying economic
fundamentals. Much of the concern is focused on China where government stimulus efforts have been large and effective, Money in China has been especially easy to find. Aggregate new bank lending surged 201% in first half of 2009 from the same period a year earlier, to nearly 51.1 turn on. Exuberance over a quick recovery which was given a boost by China’s surprisingly strong 7.9% GDP growth in the second quarter has buoyed investor sentiment not just for stocks but also for real estate.
Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles could only be recognised in hand sight. But investors who have been well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the past decade are increasingly wary that prices have risen too far and that the slightest bit of negative, economic news could knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by the possibility that Asia’s central bankers will begin taking stops to shut off the money. Rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening credit led to Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, there is close to a zero possibility that the Chinese government will do anything this year that constitutes tightening. And without a major shift in thinking, the easy-money conditions will stay in place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and downs than anyone thought possible over the past two years. Asia may be neading for another disheartening plunge.
51. To which of the following has the author attributed the 2008 Asian financial crisis?
(A) Reluctance or Asian government to taper off the economic stimulus.
(B) Greed of Asian investors causing them to trade stocks of American companies at high prices
(C) Inflated real estate prices in Asian countries.
(1) None
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) Only (B)
52. What does the author want to convey through the phrase “The world has not changed it has just moved places”?
(1) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economies than on the US economy
(2) Economies have become interlinked on account of globalisation
(3) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries
(4) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy
(5) None of the above
53. Which of the following can be said about the Chinese government’s efforts to revive the economy?
(1) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved
(2) The governments only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks
(3) These efforts were ineffectual as the economy recovered owing to the US market stabilising
(4) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival
(5) They blindly imitated the economic reforms adopted by the US
54. Why do experts predict that Asian policymakers will not withdraw fiscal stimulus?
(A) The US economy is not likely to recover for a long time.
(B) Stock markets are yet to regain their former levels.
(C) Fear of revolt by greedy citizens.
(1) None of these
(2) Only (C)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) (B) and (C)
55. W hat do the statistics about loans given by Chinese banks in 2009 indicate?
(1) There was hardly any demand for loans in 2008
(2) The Chinese government has borrowed funds from the US
(3) China will take longer than the US to recover from the economic crisis
(4) The GDP of China was below expectations
(5) None of the above
56. Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been restored?
(A) Existing property prices which are stable and affordable.
(B) The government has decided to tighten credit.
(C) Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures.
(1) Only (C)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) All (A), (B) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) None of these
57. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?
(1) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than those of developed countries
(2) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted and avoided
(3) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth and profits over sound economic-principles
(4) Extolling China’s incredible growth and urging other countries to emulate it ,
(5) Advising governments about the changes in policy to strengthen economic fundamentals
58. Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics?
(1) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover
(2) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to crash
(3) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
(4) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
(5) None of the above
Directions (Q.Nos. 59-65) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Delays of several months in National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) wage payments and work sites where labourers have lost all hope of being paid at all have become the norm in many states. How are workers who exist on the margins of subsistence supposed to feed their families? Under the scheme, workers must be paid within 15 days, failing which they are entitled, to compensation under the Payment of Wages Act – upto Rs. 3000 per aggrieved worker. In reality, compensation is received in only a few isolated instances. It is often argued by officials that the main reason for the delay is the inability of banks and post offices to handle mass payments of NREGS wages. Though there is a grain of truth in this, as a diagnosis it is misleading. The ‘jam ‘ in the banking system has been the result of the hasty switch to bank payments imposed by the Central Government against the recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council which advocated a gradual transition starting with villages relatively close to the nearest bank. However, delays are not confined solely to the banking system. Operational hurdles include implementing agencies taking more than fifteen days to issue payment orders, viewing of work measurement as a cumbersome process resulting in procrastination by the engineering staff and non maintenance of muster rolls and job card etc. But behind these delays lies a deeper and deliberate ‘backlash’ against the NREGS. With bank payments making it much harder to embezzle NREGS funds, the programme is seen as a headache by many government functionaries the workload has remained without the “inducements”. Slowing down wage payments is a convenient way of sabotaging the scheme because workers will desert NREGS worksites.
The common sense solution advocated by the government is to adopt the business correspondent model. Where in bank agents will go to villages to make cash payments and duly record them on handheld, electronic devices. This solution is based on the wrong diagnosis that distance separating villages from banks is the main issue. In order to accelerate payments, clear timelines for every step of the payment process should be incorporated into the system as Programme Officers often have no data on delays and cannot exert due pressure to remedy the situation.
Workers are both clueless and powerless with no provision for them to air their grievances and seek redress. In drought affected areas the system of piece rate work can be dispensed with where work measurement is not completed within a week and wages may be paid on the basis of attendance. Buffer funds can be provided to gram panchayats and post offices to avoid bottlenecks in the flow of funds. Partial advances could also be considered provided wage payments are meticulously tracked. But failure to recognise problems and unwillingness to remedy them will remain major threats to the NREGS.
59. What impact have late wage payments had on NREGS workers?
(1) They cannot obtain employment till their dues are cleared
(2) They have benefited from the compensation awarded to them
(3) They have been unable to provide for their families
(4) They have been ostracised by their families who depend on them for sustenance
(5) None of the above
60. Which of the following factors has not been responsible for untimely payment of NREGS wages?
(1) Communication delays between agencies implementing the scheme
(2) Improper record keeping
(3) Behind schedule release of payments by banks
(4) Drought conditions prevalent in the country
(5) Delays in work measurement
61. What has the outcome of disbursing NREGS wages through banks been?
(1) Theft of funds by administration officials responsible for the scheme has reduced
(2) Increased work load for local government officials
(3) Protests by workers who have to travel long distances to the nearest bank to claim their wages
(4) Time consuming formalities have to be completed by workers
(5) None of the above
62. According to the passage, which of the following has/have been the consequence (s) of delayed wage payments?
(A) Compensation to victimised workers has amounted to crores.
(B) Banks will no longer be entrusted with remitting wages.
(C) Regulations to ensure punctual wage payments have come into force.
(1) None of these
(2) Only (A)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) (B) and (C)
63. To which of the following has the author attributed the delay in wage payments?
(1) Embezzlement of funds by corrupt bank staff
(2) Lack of monitoring by the Central Employment Guarantee Council
(3) An attempt to derail the NREGS by vested interests
(4) Overworked bank staff deliberately delay payments to protest against extra work
(5) Engineers’ efforts to wreck the NREGS because of low wages
64. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(A) Workers are reluctant to open bank accounts as branches are not conveniently located.
(B) Local officials often delay wage payments in drought prone areas to benefit workers.
(C) The Government has not implemented every recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council.
(1) Only (B)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and (C)
(4) (A) and (C)
(5) All of these
65. Which of the following can be considered a deficiency in the NREGS?
(1) Lack of co-ordination among Programme Officers
(2) Local officials are unaware of correct operational procedures
(3) Workers have no means of obtaining redressal for untimely wage payments
(4) Disbursing wages through banks instead of readily accessible post offices
(5) The Central Employment Guarantee Council is reluctant to award compensation to workers
Directions (Q. No. 66-70) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) (E) and (F) into a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it.
(A) Moreover salaries in public sector enterprises are not as competitive as those offered by private or foreign corporates.
(B) This trend should be a wake up call for stakeholders to examine why employees are seeking better opportunities with private companies in India and abroad.
(C) Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) have been experiencing severe challenges in attracting motivating and retaining their key staff.
(D) Having identified these as the reasons employees leave PSEs it is important empower stakeholders to find ways to remedy the situation.
(E) One reason is that young employees lured away to private firms are more willing to undertake professional risks.
(F) Employees in specialist roles especially have become increasingly difficult to retain.
66. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
67. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
68. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
69. Which of the following should be FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
70. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4)D
(5) E
Directions (Q. Nos. 71-80) In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words have been suggested, one of which fills the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Traditional bank architecture is based on bank branches. These branches ensure the physical (71) of a customer’s savings. A customer may go there to deposit and withdraw money, (72) loans and (73) in other financial transactions. In the past two decades banking architecture has changed the Automated Teller Machine (ATM) has been a big (74) and credit and debit cards have created new financial spaces. (75) the bank branch has remained the bedrock of the banking system after all a person needs a bank account in a branch before he can operate a debit or ATM card. This may be about to change as technocrats now (76) cell phones as the new architecture of virtual banks. This has the potential to make branches (77). Cell phone banking looks especially relevant for India, since it can penetrate the countryside cheaply and (78). The world over cell phones are spreaing at a (79) rate and in India alone new cell phone connection are growing at the rate of six million a month a rate of customer (80) that no bank can dream of.
71.
(1) knowledge
(2) security
(3) presence
(4) confidentiality
(5) guarantee
72.
(1) negotiate
(2) advance
(3) credit
(4) disburse
(5) sanction
73.
(1) pursue
(2) interact
(3) operate
(4) enable
(5) engage
74.
(1) drawback
(2) hurdle
(3) consequence
(4) luxury
(5) innovation
75.
(1) Despite
(2) Although
(3) Even
(4) Yet
(5) Until
76.
(1) view
(2) realise
(3) display
(4) engineer
(5) assess
77.
(1) essential
(2) obsolete
(3) extant
(4) retreat
(5) expired
78.
(1) moderately
(2) occasionally
(3) compulsorily
(4) indiscriminately
(5) effectively
79.
(1) phenomenal
(2) gradual
(3) proportionate
(4) competitive
(5) projected
80.
(1) discount
(2) base
(3) expansion
(4) satisfaction
(5) relationship
Directions (Q. Nos. 81-85) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
81. In an effort to provide……….. for higher education to all, most of the universities have been providing education without adequate infrastructure, thus churning out ………. graduates every year.
(1) chances, fresh
(2) platform, capable
(3) opportunities, unemployable
(4) prospects, eligible
(5) policy, incompetent
82. The move to allow dumping of mercury ……… an outcry from residents of the area who ………. that high levels of mercury will affect their health and destroy ecologically sensitive forest area.
(1) resulted, insist
(2) provoked, fear
(3) incited, determined
(4) activated, accept
(5) angered, believe
83. Even as the …… elsewhere in the world are struggling to come out of recession, Indian consumers are splurging on consumer goods and to ……. this growth, companies are investing heavily in various sectors.
(1) economies, meet
(2) countries, inhibit
(3) governments, measure
(4) nations, inflict
(5) companies, counter
84. Drawing attention to the pitfalls of……… solely on Uranium as a fuel for nuclear reactors, Indian scientists warn that Uranium will not last for long and thus 1 Thorium as its ……. must be revived.
(1) substitute
(2) beneving, replacement
(3) depending, reserve
(4) reckoning, option
(5) relying, alternative
85. .………….has been taken against some wholesale drug dealers for dealing in surgical items without a valid license and maintaining a stock of……………drugs.
(1) Note, overwhelming
(2) Step, impressive
(3) Execution, outdated
(4) Action, expired
(5) Lawsuit, invalid
Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence? If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark (5) i.e., ‘None of the above’ as the answer.
86. Overlooking the fact that water scarcity intensifies during summer,………….
(1) the government issued guidelines to all builders to limit their consumption to acceptable limits
(2) provision for rainwater harvesting has been made to aid irrigation in drought prone area
(3) the water table did not improve even after receiving normal monsoon in the current year
(4) many residential areas continue to use swimming pools, wasting large quantities water
(5) None of the above
87. Refuting the rationale behind frequent agitations for formation of separate states, a recent report…………
(1) proved that such agitations result in loss of governmental property
(2) indicated that the formation of small states does not necessarily improve the economy
(3) suggested that only large scale agitations have been effective in bringing out desired change in the past
(4) recommended dividing large states into smaller ones to improve governance
(5) None of the above
88. Achieving equality for women is not only a laudable goal,……….
(1) political reforms are also neglected preventing women from entering legislatures and positions of power
(2) the problem is also deep rooted in the society and supported by it
(3) their empowerment is purposefully hampered by people with vested interests in all sections of the society
(4) it is also equally difficult to achieve and maintain for a long term
(5) None of the above
89. He has lost most of his life’s earning in the stock market but…….
(1) he still seems to be leading his life luxuriously and extravagantly
(2) he could not save enough to repay his enormous debts
(3) stock market is not a safe option to invest money unless done with caution
(4) experts have been suggesting to avoid investments in stock market because of its unpredictable nature
(5) None of the above
90. ………………. or else they would not keep electing him year after year.
(1) The party leader gave a strong message to the mayor for improving his political style
(2) Owing to numerous scandals against the mayor, he was told to resign from the post immediately
(3) The mayor threatened the residents against filing a complaint against him
(4) The residents must really be impressed with the political style of their mayor
(5) None of the above
Part III Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) In each of the following questions, a question is followed by information given in three Statements I, II and III. You have to study the question along with the statements and decide the information given in which of the statement(s) is necessary to answer the question.
91. In how many days 10 women can finish the work?
I. 10 men finish the work in 6 days.
II. 10 women and 10 men finish the work i n 33/7 days.
III. If 10 men work 3 days and after that 10 women are deployed to work for men, the rest work is finished in 4 days.
(1) I and II
(2) Any two of three
(3) I and III
(4) II and III
(5) None of these
92. What is the present age of Sabir?
I. The present age of Sabir is half of his father’s age.
II. After five years the ratio of ages of Sabir and his father is 6:11.
III. Sabir is younger to his brother by five years.
(1)1 and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) All of these
(5) Cannot be determined
93. What is two digit number?
I. The difference between the number and the number formed by interchanging the digit is 27.
II. The difference between two digits is 3.
III. The digit at unit’s place is less than that at ten’s place by 3.
(1) I and II
(2) I and either II or III
(3) I and III
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
94. What is the rate of interest Percent per annum?
I. An amount doubles itself in 5 yr on simple interest.
II. Difference between the compound interest and the simple interest earned on a certain amount in two years is Rs. 400.
III. Simple interest earned per annum is RS. 2000.
(1) Only I
(2) II and III
(3) Any two of three
(4) I or II and III
(5) Only I or II and III
95. What is the cost of flooring the rectangular hall?
I. Length and the breadth of the hall are in the ratio of 3:2.
II. Length of the hall is 48 m and cost of flooring is Rs. 850 per sq m.
III. Perimeter of the hall is 160 m and cost of flooring is Rs.850 per sq m.
(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) Only III
(4) I and either II or III
(5) Any two of the three
96. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and the denominator is increased by 25%, the fraction obtained is 3/5 . What was the original fraction?
Approximate Percentage of Defaulters
Among them each Year
(1) 5/7
(2) 4/7
(3) 3/8
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
97. If the positions of the digits of a two-digit number are interchanged, the number obtained is smaller than the original number by 27. If the digits of the number are in the ratio of 1 : 2, what is the original number?
(1)36
(2)63
(3) 48
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
98. One of the angles of a quadrilateral is thrice the smaller angle of a parallelogram. The respective ratio between the adjacent angles of the parallelogram is 4:5.
Remaining three angles of the quadrilateral are in ratio 4:11:9 respectively. W hat is the sum of the largest and the smallest angles of the quadrilateral?
(1) 255°
(2) 260°
(3)265°
(4) 270°
(5) None of these
99. An aeroplane flies with an average speed of 756 km/h. A helicopter takes 48 h to cover twice the distance covered by aeroplane in 9 h. How much distance will the helicopter cover in 18 h? (Assuming that flights are non-stop and moving with uniform speed.)
(1)5010 km
(2) 4875 km
(3) 5760 km
(4) 5103 km
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 100-104) Study the following table carefully and answer the question given below. Number of People taking Fresh Loans from Different Banks over the Year and the Percentage of Defaulters Amongst them each Year
Number of People taking Fresh Loans from Different Banks over the Year and the Percentage of Defaulters Amongst them each Year
Approximate Percentage of Defaulters Among them each Year
100. Approximately how many people taking a loan from Bank S in the year 2006 were defaulters?
(1)6490
(2) 6210
(3) 5020
(4) 6550
(5) 5580
101. Approximately what was the difference between the number of defaulters of Bank Q in the year 2004 and 2005?
(1)175
(2)125
(3)190
(4)205
(5) 140
102. In which of the following years was the number of defaulters of Bank R, the maximum among the given years?
(1)2005
(2) 2006
(3)2007
(4)2010
(5) None of these
103. In which of the following years was the difference in number of people taking loan from Bank P from the previous year the highest?
(1) 2008
(2) 2006
(3) 2007
(4) 2005
(5) None of these
104. Approximately what was the total number of defaulters of Bank T in the years 2007 and 2008 together?
(1) 14110
(2)13620
(3) 13250
(4) 14670
(5) 15330
Directions (Q. Nos. 105-109) In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.
105. 29, 37, 21, 43 ,13, 53, 5
(1)37
(2)53
(3)13
(4)21
(5) 43
106. 600, 125, 30, 13, 7.2, 6.44, 6.288
(1)6
(2)10
(3)15
(4)21
(5) None of these
107. 80, 42, 24, 13.5, 8.75, 6.375, 5.1875
(1)8.75
(2)13.5
(3)24
(4)6.375
(5) 42
108. 10,8,13,35,135 ,6 71,400 7
(1)8
(2)671
(3) 135
(4) 13
(5) 35
109. 150, 290, 560, 1120, 2140, 4230, 8400
(1)2140
(2)560
(3)1120
(4)4230
(5) 290
Directions (Q.Nos. 110-114) These questions are based on the following data. The distribution of appeared and qualified aspirants in competitive examination from different States.
110. What is the ratio of the number of appeared aspirants from States C and E together to that of the appeared aspirants from States A and F together?
(1)17:33
(2)11:13
(3)13:27
(4)17:27
(5) None of these
111. In which state the percentage of qualified aspirants to appeared aspirants is the least?
(1) C
(2) F
(3) D
(4) E
(5) G
112. What is the difference in the number of qualified aspirants in states D and G?
(1)690
(2) 670
(3) 780
(4) 720
(5) None of these
113. What is the percentage of qualified aspirants with respect to appeared aspirants from states B and C taken together? (Rounded off to two decimal places.)
(1) 23.11
(2) 24.21
(3) 21.24
(4) 23
(5) None of these
114. What is the ratio between number of candidates qualified from States B and D together and the number of candidates appeared from States ‘C’ respectively?
(1)8 :3 7
(2)11:12
(3) 37 : 40
(4)7 :3 7
(5) None of the above
Directions (Q. Nos. 115-119) In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answers.
(1) if x > y
(2) if x≥ y
(3) if x < y
(4) if x ≤y
(5) if x = y or the relationship cannot be established
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
Directions (Q. Nos. 120-124) Study the following table to answer these questions.
Plan of Public Sector Under Various Plans Sector-wise
Expenditure out of that total expenditure (in million)
120. In various plans in the ratio of expenditure on public sector, which of the following graphs explain best the expenditure on water supply and sanitation?
121. The ratio of public sector expenditure to the expenditure on social services was highest in which plan?
(1)1
(2) VI
(3) V
(4) II
(5) None of these
122. In the successive plans in the ratio of public sector expenditure there was a continuous decrease in which sector?
(1) In no sector
(2) Health
(3) Education
(4) Social services
(5) Social welfare and related areas
123. For plan VI out of public sector expenditure, what per cent of expenditure is on Housing and Urban services?
(1)0.35
(2)25
(3) 25.5
(4) 2.5
(5) 20.5
124. For all the given plans, what was the difference in expenditure on education and health?
(1) Rs. 220400000
(2) Rs. 224000000
(3) Rs. 22040000000
(4) Rs. 220400000000
(5) None of these
125. The respective ratio between the present ages of son, mother, father and grandfather is 2 :7 :8 :1 2 . The average age of son and mother is 27 yr. What will be mother’s age after 7 yr?
(1) 40 yr
(2) 41 yr
(3) 48 yr
(4) 49 yr
(5) None of these
126. In an examination, Raman scored 25 marks less than Rohit. Rohit scored 45 more marks than Sonia. Rohan scored 75 marks which is 10 more than Sonia. Ravi’s score is 50 less than, maximum marks of the test. What approximate percentage of marks did Ravi score in the examination, if he gets 34 marks more than Raman?
(1)90
(2)70
(3) 80
(4) 60
(5) 85
127. 8 men and 4 women together can complete a piece of work in 6 days. The work done by a man in one day is double the work done by a woman in one day. If 8 men and 4 women started working and after 2 days 4 men left and 4 new women joined, in how many more days will the work be completed?
(1)5 days
(2) 8 days
(3) 6 days
(4) 4 days
(5) 9 days
128. Mr Giridhar spends 50% of his monthly income on household items and out of the remaining he spends 50% on transport, 25% on entertainment, 10% on sports and the remaining amount of Rs. 900 is saved. What is Mr Giridhar’s monthly income?
(1) Rs. 6000
(2)Rs. 12000
(3) Rs. 9000
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
129. The cost of fencing a circular plot at the rate of Rs. 15 per m is Rs.3300. What will be the cost of flooring the plot at the rate of Rs. 100 per sq m?
(1)Rs.385000
(2) Rs.220000
(3) Rs. 350000
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
130. The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal in 8 yr at the rate of 13% per year is Rs. 6500. What would be the compound interest accrued on that principal at the rate of 8% per year in 2 yr?
(1) Rs. 1040
(2)Rs. 1020
(3)Rs. 1060
(4)Rs. 1200
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 131-135) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow. There are two trains . A and B. Both trains have four different types of coaches viz. General coaches, sleeper coaches, first class coaches and AC coaches. In train A, there are total 700 passenger. Train B has 30% more passengers than train A. 20% of the passengers of train A are in general coaches. One-fourth of the total number of passengers of train A are in AC coaches. 23% of the passengers of train A are in sleeper class coaches. Remaining passengers of train A are in first class coaches. Total number of passengers in AC coaches in both the trains together is 480. 30% of the number of passengers of train B is in sleeper class coaches, 10% of the total passengers of train B are in first class coaches. Remaining passengers of train B are in general class coaches.
131. What is the ratio of the number of passengers in first class coaches of train A to the number of passengers in sleeper class coaches of train B?
(1)13:7
(2)7:13
(3) 32 : 39
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
132. What is the total number of passengers in the general coaches of train A and the AC coaches of train B together?
(1) 449
(2) 459
(3) 435
(4) 445
(5) None of these
133. What is the difference between the number of passengers in the AC coaches of train A and total number of passengers in sleeper class coaches and first class coaches together of train B?
(1)199
(2)178
(3)187
(4)179
(5) None of these
134. Total number of passengers in general class coaches in both the trains together is approximately. What percentage of total number of passengers in train B?
(1) 35
(2) 42
(3) 45
(4) 38
(5)31
135. If cost of per ticket of first class coach ticket is 7 450, what total amount will be generated from first class coaches of train A?
(1)Rs. 100080
(2) Rs. 108000
(3)Rs. 100800
(4) Rs. 10800
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 136-140) Study the following pie chart carefully to answer the questions
Degree Wise Break-up of Employees Working in Various Departments of an Organization
Respective ration of Men to Women in each department
Total number of employees = 3250
136. What is the number of men working in the Marketing department?
(1)462
(2)454
(3) 418
(4) 424
(5) None of these
137. What is the respective ratio of the number of women working in the HR department to the number of men working in the IT department?
(1)11:12
(2)17:29
(3)13:28
(4)12:35
(5) None of these
138. The number of men working in the production department of the organisation forms what per cent of the total number of employees working in that department?
(1)88%
(2)90%
(3)75%
(4)65%
(5) None of these
139. The number of women working in the IT department of the organization forms what per cent of the total number of employees in the organization from all departments together?
(1)3.2%
(2) 4.8%
(3) 6.3%
(4) 5.6%
(5) None of these
140. What is the total number of men working in the organization?
(1) 2198
(2) 2147
(3)2073
(4)2236
(5) None of these
Part IV General Awareness
141. Which of the following is a receipt listed in India and traded in rupees declaring ownership of shares of a foreign company?
(1) Indian Depository Receipt (IDR)
(2) European Depository Receipt (EDR)
(3) Global Depository Receipt (GDR)
(4) American Depository Receipt (ADR)
(5) Luxemburg Depository Receipt (LDR)
142. A bank without any branch network that offers its services remotely through online banking, telephone/mobile banking and interbank ATM network alliances is known as
(1) Universal Banking
(2) Indirect Bank
(3) Door Step Bank
(4) A Direct Bank
(5) Unit Banking
143. Which of the following Indian Universities is Asia’s largest residential university?
(1) Allahabad University
(2) Utkal University
(3) Banaras Hindu University
(4) Anna University
(5) Jawaharlal Nehru University
144. In October, 2013, which country has confirmed plans to create a secure mail service to protect its citizens and businesses against foreign espionage?
(1) Mexico
(2) Brazil
(3) Sweden
(4) Germany
(5) None of these
145. The campaign name ‘Heal India’ aims to create awareness about which of the following diseases?
(1) Mental illness
(2) AIDS
(3) Leprosy
(4) Alzheimer
(5) None of these
146. The target set by the UIDAI for issuance of Aadhaar cards upto 2014 is
(1) 50 crore cards
(2) 55 crore cards
(3) 45 crore cards
(4) 40 crore cards
(5) 60 crore cards
147. Which of the following nations has signed a comprehensive free trade agreement with European Union?
(1) Japan
(2) China
(3) Russia
(4) Canada
(5) None of these
148. According to the provisions of the income Tax Act, 1961 a resident individual is categorised as a ‘very senior citizen’ when he is
(1) 80 yr of age or older
(2) 75 yr of age or older
(3) 90 yr of age or older
(4) 85 yr of age or older
(5) 65 yr of age or older
149. Who among the following has recently been conferred with the first Yash Chopra Memorial Award?
(1) Other than those given as options
(2) Madhuri Dixit Nene
(3) Ramesh Sippy
(4) Lata Mangeshkar
(5) AR Rahman
150. Which of the following is an investment advisory discipline?
(1) Corporate Industrial Finance
(2) Offshare Banking
(3) Wholesale Banking
(4) Wealth Management
(5) Trade Finance
151. The Aadhar-enabled Payment System (AEPS) is a bank-led model that facilitates banking facilities through banking correspondents across banks.
However, Aadhaar- enabled basic types of banking transactions do ‘not’ include
(1) Aadhaar to Aadhaar funds transfer
(2) Small overdraft facility
(3) Cash withdrawal
(4) Balance enquiry
(5) Cash deposit
152. A type of fraud wherein criminals use an innocent person’s details to open or use an account to carry out financial transactions is known as
(1) identity theft
(2) hacking
(3) money laundering
(4) espionage
(5) phishing
153. Deepak Lathore is related to which of the following sports?
(1) Hockey
(2) Cricket
(3) Badminton
(4) Football
(5) Weightlifting
154. Who among the following is the author of the book “The Lowland”?
(1) Jhumpa Lahiri
(2) Amitav Ghosh
(3) Salman Rushdie
(4) Hamid Ansari
(5) Chetan Bhagat
155. Which of the following Indian actresses has recently (October, 2013 been honoured at the British House of Commons for her contribution to the global entertainment industry?
(1) Shabana Azmi
(2) Kareena Kapoor
(3) Nandita Das
(4) Aishwarya Rai Bachchan
(5) Vidya Balan
156. Who among the following is the current Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India?
(1) KG Balakrishnan
(2) Ranjit Sinha
(3) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(4) VS Sampath
(5) SY Quraishi
157. The part of a company’s earnings or profits which are paid out to shareholders is known as
(1) capital gains
(2) taxes
(3) interest on borrowings
(4) dividends
(5) penal interest
158. NABARD is responsible for regulating and supervising the functions of
(1) Investment and Industrial Finance Banks
(2) Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks
(3) Corporate Finance and Overseas Banking Units
(4) Private Sector and Multinational Banks
(5) Reserve Bank of India
159. The government of India has announced a ‘funding for lending’ scheme. Who are the beneficiaries for this scheme?
(1) Commercial Banks
(2) Regional Rural Banks
(3) Micro-finance Institutions
(4) Finance Departments of the State Governments
(5) None of the above
160. The arrangement under which banks sell insurance products acting as the agents of the respective companies is called the
(1) Insurance joint venture
(2) Bancassurance Model
(3) Hybrid Insurance Model
(4) Insurance Broking
(5) Integrated Model
161. The concept of ‘Micro Credit’ essentially concentrates on
(1) consumption smoothening as and when needed
(2) providing safe place to hold savings
(3) accepting deposits
(4) provision of credit to the poor
(5) facility to transfer money
162. With effect from July 1, 2012, for calculation of lending rates, the Reserve Bank of India has advised banks to switch over to the
(1) MSF Rate System
(2) Reverse Repo Rate System
(3) Bank Rate System
(4) Repo Rate System
(5) Base Rate System
163. An Equity share is also commonly referred to as
(1) ordinary share
(2) debenture
(3) convertible share
(4) security receipt
(5) preferred stock
164. Which among the following Companies in India has a tie-up with the Japanese Financial Nomura for insurance market?
(1) ICICI Bank
(2) UCO Bank
(3) Kotak Finance
(4) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(5) None of the above
165. The seed capital of Bhartiya Mahila Bank is
(1) Rs. 2000 crore
(2) Rs. 1000 crore
(3) Rs. 4000 crore
(4) Rs. 3000 crore
(5) None of these
166. The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialised agency of the United Nations (UN) that is concerned with international Public Health. It is headquartered at
(1) Sweden (2) Switzerland
(3) United Kingdom (4) France
(5) Germany
167. The process by which a life insurance policyholder can transfer all rights, title and interest under a policy contract to a third person is known as
(1) Assignment of the policy
(2) Hypothecation of the policy
(3) Reinvestment of the policy
(4) Negotiation of the policy
(5) Nomination of the policy
168. Which of the following communities is ‘not’ notified as a ‘minority community’ by the ministry of Welfare, Government of India?
(1) Sikhs
(2) Zoroastrians
(3) Buddhists
(4) Jains
(5) Christians
169. In October, 2013, which of the following countries has decided to scrap its two currency system?
(1) Mongolia
(2) Sweden
(3) Cuba
(4) Jamaica
(5) None of these
170. Cheraw, the Bamboo Dance, is of which Indian states?
(1) Mizoram
(2) Sikkim
(3) Arunachal Pradesh
(4) Manipur
(5) Asom
171. 8th National Conference of Krishi Vigyan Kendra-2013 was held at
(1) Chennai
(2) Mumbai
(3) Lucknow
(4) Kolkata
(5) Bangalore
172. Which of the following institutions is regarded as the ‘Lender of the Last Resort’ by Banks in India?
(1) State Bank of India (SBI)
(2) The State Treasury
(3) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(4) World Bank
(5) Department of Financial Services (DFS)
173. A bank’s ‘fixed deposit’ is also referred to as a
(1) term deposit
(2) savings bank deposit
(3) current deposit
(4) demand deposit
(5) home savings deposit
174. To improve access of the poor to banking, RBI has advised banks to open branches with minimum infrastructure supporting up to 8 to 10 Business Correspondents (BC) at a reasonable distance of 3-4 km.
Such branches are known as
(1) Nodal branches
(2) Micro branches
(3) Mini branches
(4) Ultra small branches
(5) Satellite branches
175. Which of the following services relate to execution of transactions directly with consumers, rather than corporations or other banks?
(1) Wholesale Banking Services
(2) Industrial Banking Services
(3) Investment Banking Services
(4) Corporate Banking Services
(5) Retail Banking Services
176. World Food Day is celebrated every year around the world on
(1) July 4
(2) October 16
(3) Other than those given as options
(4) August 12
(5) May 18
177. As per Census 2011, which of the following Indian states has the lowest population density?
(1) Nagaland
(2) Manipur
(3) Arunachal Pradesh
(4) Himachal Pradesh
(5) Meghalaya
178. The minimum age for becoming a member of Rajya Sabha is
(1) 28 yr
(2) 40 yr
(3) 30 yr
(4) 35 yr
(5) 25 yr
179. Banks’ mandatory lending to farmers for agriculture micro and small enterprises and other weaker sections where in banks are required to lend up to 40% of the loans is generally described as
(1) Para banking
(2) Sub-prime lending
(3) Retail lending
(4) Non-priority sector lending
(5) Priority sector lending
180. Which of the following statements regarding the ‘Direct Benefits Transfer Scheme (DBT)’ of the government of India is ‘not’ true?
(1) The scheme covers LPG subsidies, pension payments and scholarships
(2) Indirect transfers of benefits are more prone to leakage than direct transfers
(3) Under DBT, money is directly transferred into ban! accounts of beneficiaries
(4) The scheme was launched on January 1, 2013 to cover 20 districts initially
(5) The scheme is likely to increase the subsidy bill of the government
PartV Computer Knowledge
181. Macros stored in the global macro sheet can be used
(1) in the current document only
(2) in any document
(3) can be used only with other macros of the global macro sheet
(4) not consistent behaviour
(5) None of the above
182. About pasting from the clip board
(1) a part of the clip board contents can be pasted
(2) whole of the contents of clip board can be pasted
(3) sometimes (1) and sometimes (2)
(4) (1) and (2)
(5) None of the above
183. One of the following statements is not true for BUFFERS command
(1) Increasing numbers of BUFFERS can speed program execution, but only to a certain extent
(2) The more buffers that exist the more sectors can be stored in memory; hence fewer accesses of disk are necessary
(3) The BUFFERS command is used to establish the number of disk buffers set up by MS-DOS during booting
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
184. EPROM can be used for
(1) erasing the contents of ROM
(2) reconstructing the contents of ROM
(3) erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
(4) duplicating the ROM
(5) None of the above
185. Attributes can be defined for
(1) entity
(2) switch board
(3) macro
(4) pages
(5) None of the above
186. Where will we find the referential integrity command ?
(1) Tools
(2) View
(3) Format
(4) Table
(5) None of these
187. Anything that is typed in a worksheet appears
(1) in the formula bar only
(2) in the active cell only
(3) in both active cell and formula bar
(4) in the formula bar first and when we press ENTER it appears in active cell
(5) None of the above
188. Which bar is usually located below the Title Bar that provides categorised options ?
(1) Menu Bar
(2) Status Bar
(3) Toolbar
(4) Scroll Bar
(5) None of the above
189. A pixel is
(1) a computer program that draws picture
(2) a picture stored in the secondary memory
(3) the smallest resolvable part of a picture
(4) a virus
(5) None of the above
190. How many types of cell references are available in Excel?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 10
(5) None of these
191. VIRUS stands for
(1) Very Important Record User Searched
(2) Verify Interchanged Result Until Source
(3) Virtual Information Resource Under Seize
(4) Very Important Resource Under Search
(5) None of the above
192. Unlike filters queries can be saved as …… in a database.
(1) objects
(2) filters
(3) database
(4) Any of the above
(5) None of these
193. Table of contents can be prepared by using
(1) macros
(2) headings as H1, H2, H3 and more in the document
(3) by table of contents in tools menu
(4) (2) and (3)
(5) None of the above
194. Table in Word is a grid of rows and columns, with each cell can have
(1) text or graphics
(2) only text
(3) only graphics
(4) both
(5) None of these
195. What is a database ?
(1) It is a collection of data arranged in rows
(2) It is a collection of data arranged in columns
(3) It is a collection of data arranged in rows and columns
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
196. Which switch should be used in the DIR command to view files in a directories ?
(1) /P
(2) /W
(3) /S
(4) /L
(5) None of these
197. When a key is pressed on the keyboard, which standard is used for converting the keystroke into the corresponding bits ?
(1) ANSI
(2) ASCII
(3) EBCDIC
(4) ISO
(5) None of the above
198. External database is @) Show
(1) Database created in EXCEL
(2) Database created using DBMS package
(3) Database created in MS-Word
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
199. Which command we will give if we want to show the database objects with it’s description?
(1) Details
(2) Show
(3) List
(4) Any of the above
(5) None of the above
200. Word allows user to import grapghics fro,
(1) The library which comes bundled with Word
(2) Anywhere in the computer
(3) Various graphics format like gif, bmp., png., etc
(4) Only gif format
(5) None of the above
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