The IBPS PO Prelims Exam is the first stage that candidates must pass to be eligible for the Mains Exam. The IBPS PO (Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Probationary Officer) exam is a highly competitive exam that can lead to a promising banking career.
IBPS PO Previous Year Question Papers and Solutions PDF
The IBPS
PO Prelims Exam has 100 questions and a time limit of 60 minutes. Speed and
accuracy are the deciding factors, and these skills come with practice.
Previous year papers and mock tests are considered to be the best for practice
when there is less time left for the exam.
Key Topics
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IBPS RRB Clerk Previous Year Question
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IBPS RRB Office Assistant Sample Paper
· IBPS RRB Question Paper Office Assistant
· IBPS RRB Office Assistant Question Paper 2023
IBPS PO Previous Year Papers and Solution PDFs
The IBPS
PO 2019 Prelims Question Paper served as a crucial step in the selection
process for Probationary Officers (PO) in Indian banks. It comprised
sections on English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, and Reasoning Ability,
designed to assess candidates' proficiency in these areas.
IBPS PO Previous Year Question Papers and Solutions
The English
Language section tested candidates' comprehension, grammar, and vocabulary
skills. Quantitative Aptitude evaluated their mathematical ability,
including proficiency in arithmetic, algebra, and data interpretation.
Meanwhile, Reasoning Ability assessed logical thinking and problem-solving
abilities.
IBPS PO Previous Year Question Paper & Solutions PDF
The question
paper aimed to gauge candidates' suitability for the demanding role of a
bank probationary officer, emphasizing their ability to handle complex tasks
under pressure. It served as a benchmark for selecting candidates who
demonstrated the necessary knowledge and skills to excel in the banking
sector.
IBPS PO Previous Year Question Paper 2019
Here are some
tips for solving previous year papers:
·
Pay attention to the question
types
·
Pay attention to the time it
takes to solve each section
·
Pay attention to accuracy
IBPS PO 2019 Prelims Question Paper
IBPS PO PRE 2019 Memory Based (Reasoning) (Questions)
Q1. In the word ‘BRISKLY’, how many pairs of the letters have the same number of letters between them in the word as in alphabet?
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) More than four
Direction (2-4): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Seven members are living in the family. Q is the daughter of P. B is the brother of R. G is the mother in law of A. B is married with A. B is the uncle of Q. D is the father of B.
Q2. What is the relation of B with respect to P?
(a) Brother
(b) Sister in law
(c) Brother in law
(d) Mother
(e) Aunt
Q3. If C is the brother of B, then What is the relation of C with respect to Q?
(a) Aunt
(b) Uncle
(c) Father
(d) Mother
(e) Sister
Q4. If P is the father of Q, then what is the relation of R with respect to P?
(a) Wife
(b) Husband
(c) Father
(d) Father in law
(e) Mother
Q5. If ”624739854″ 1 is added to all the even number and 1 is subtract from all the odd number, then what is the sum of the digits M Memory Based Package V which is fifth from the left end and fourth from the right end?
(a) 12
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 10
(e) None of these
Direction (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a rectangular table in such a way that four persons sit on each of the four corner of the table and other four persons sit on the middle of each side. The one who sits at the corner of table faces outside the center of table and the one who sits at the middle side of table faces towards the center of table. Persons sitting on opposite sides are exactly opposite to each other.
F sits at one of the middle side of the table. Two persons sit between F and E. Only one person sits between F and C. E does not sit near to C. Either A sits 2nd to the left of H or 2nd right of H. One person sits between A and C. B and G sit opposite to each other. D sits 2nd to the left of B. G doesn’t sit next to F.
Q6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) E
(b) G
(c) D
(d) H
(e) B
Q7. Who among the following sits 3rd to the right of D?
(a) E
(b) H
(c) C
(d) A
(e) G
Q8. What is the position of F with respect to G?
(a) 3 rd to the right
(b) 2nd to the right
(c) 2nd to the left
(d) 3rd to the left
(e) None of these
Q9. How many persons sit between D and F when counted to the right of D?
(a) One
(b) None
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four
Q10. Who among the following faces to C?
(a) H
(b) B
(c) G
(d) E
(e) None of these
Direction (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Ten persons L, M, N, O, P , Q, R, S, T, and U were born on two different dates 15 and 30 of five different months viz. January, March, April, September and November but not necessarily in the same order. L was born on 15 th of the month which has 31 days. Three persons were born between L and P. Four persons were born between P and O. O was born before L. The number of persons were born after O is same as the number of persons born before N. One person was born between P and R. M was born before T but not in the month of January. T was born before P. U was born before S on same date.
Q11. How many persons were born after U?
(a) None
(b) Four
(c) More than five
(d) Two
(e) Five
Q12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) Q-L
(b) R-P
(c) O-S
(d) P-N
(e) M-O
Q13. How many persons were
(a) Six
(b) Four
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) None of these
Q14. The number of persons were born after P is same as the number of persons born before ?
(a) M
(b) R
(c) Q
(d) U
(e) None of these
Q15. Which of the following is odd one?
(a) Q
(b) L
(c) R
(d) P
(e) S
Direction (16-20): In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
Q16. Statements: A>M>R=F≥Z<X<C<V>B>N
Conclusion:
I: A≥Z
II: Z<V
Q17. Statements: Z<X<C≤V;B>C<G<H≤J
Conclusion:
I: Z<G
II: X<J
Q18. Statements: Q≥W≥E≥R<T<Y≤U≤I
Conclusion
I: Q≥T
II : R≤I
Q19. Statements: A<S<D=F>G;H>D<Z<X<C
Conclusion
I: A<C
II: C≥G
Q20. Statements: C=V>B>N>M<S<D<F<G
Conclusion
I: B>M
II: M<G
Direction (21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below In a certain code language:
“Never talk between others” is coded as “sm nt ro fi”
“Others should be helpful” is coded as “ro el ac jq”
“Never be time specific” is coded as “fi dg el pa”
“Focus between specific hours” is coded as “hy dg nt ks”
Q21.What is the code for “Never together” in the given code language?
(a) nt ro
(b) ro fi
(c) fi uy
(d) jq nt
(e) None of these
Q22. What is the code for “specific” in the given code language?
(a) dg
(b) ac
(c) jq
(d) fi
(e) None of these
Q23. What is the code for “Others” in the given code language?
(a) sm
(b) ro
(c) el
(d) pa
(e) None of these
Q24. The code “el” is coded as which of the following word?
(a) never
(b) time
(c) focus
(d) be
(e) None of these
Q25. What may be the possible code for “focus real” in the given code language?
(a) ks ze
(b) ro hy
(c) hy tr
(d) either (a) or (c)
(e) nt me
Direction (26-29): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Six persons are sitting in a row facing to the north and they have different ages but not necessarily in the same order. C sits 3rd from one of the end. The one who is 12 year old sits 2nd to the right of C. The number of persons sit right of the one who 12 year old is same as the number of persons sit to the left of D. O sits 2nd to the right of the one who is 6 year old. Two persons sit between D and B, whose age is twice than D. N sits to the right of P. The one who 36 year old sits 3rd to the left of the one who 15 year old. The age of O is 18 year.
Q26. If P is 3 year older than C, then which of the following is the age of P?
(a) 39 Years
(b) 33 Years
(c) 21 Years
(d) 9 Years
(e) None of these
Q27. What is the total age of C and B?
(a) 44
(b) 48
(c) 18
(d) 42
(e) 27
Q28. How many persons sit between P and D?
(a) More than three
(b) None
(c) Two
(d) One
(e) None of these
Q29. Who among the following sits at the extreme end of the row?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) N
(d) O
(e) D
Direction (30-34): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Seven persons were born in different years i.e. 1953, 1963, 1968, 1976, 1990, 1993, 1998. 2019 is the base year for measuring the age of all persons.
Not more than two persons were born before P. One person was born between V and S and none of them have even numbered age. There are as many persons were born before U as after Q. Difference between the age of T and S is not less than 20 years. T was born before Q and after R. Either P or U have odd numbered age.
Q30. In which of the following year T was born?
(a) 1953
(b) 1968
(c) 1990
(d) 1998
(e) None of these
Q31. What is the sum of the age of R and S?
(a) 92
(b) 69
(c) 87
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Q32. Who among the following is the oldest person?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) T
(e) None of these
Q33. Which of the following pair of combination is true?
(a) P- 29
(b) Q-26
(c) R-56
(d) S-43
(e) None is true
Q34. How many persons are younger than U?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
Q35. In the given word ‘SPLENDOR ‘, in which consonant changed into its previous letter and the vowel into its next letter (according to the alphabetical order) and then all letters are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right then which of the following letter is fifth from the left end?
(a) R
(b) O
(c) K
(d) M
(e) C
IBPS PO PRE 2019 Memory Based (Quant) (Questions)
Directions (36-40):- Given table shows the data of population in 5 different parks. Study the data carefully and answer the questions.
Q36. If 20% of total population did not visit on a particular day in park A of which male population was 60% then what percent of total population in park B is male population who visited in park A?
(a) 45%
(b) 40.4%
(c) 39.2%
(d) 48.6%
(e) None of these
Q37. What is average of male population in park B, C and D?
(a) 343.33
(b) 313.33
(c) 323.33
(d) 333.33
(e) 353.33
Q38. By what percent female population in park D is more or less than the male population in park E?
(a) 15%
(b) 9.09%
(c) 11.11%
(d) 14.28%
(e) 12.5%
Q39. What is ratio of male population in park A & D together to female population in park B & E together?
(a) 6
(b) 1
(c) 7
(d) 5
(e) 5
Q40. If 30 females from each park are above 80 years age then find the average of no. of females who are below or equal to the age of 80 years from all the parks.
(a) 295
(b) 285
(c) 300
(d) 280 (e) 290
Q41. The ratio of ages of A and B 4 years ago was 5 : 3. The sum of present ages of A, B and C is 80 years. If present age of C is equal to sum of present ages of A and B. find the present age of A.
(a) 17 years
(b) 24 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 22 years
(e) 18 years
Q42. The ratio of speed of boat in still water to speed of stream is 8 : 1. It takes 4 hours by boat to cover 54 km in downstream & 42 km in upstream. Find the downstream speed of boat.
(a) 25 kmph
(b) 24 kmph
(c) 21 kmph
(d) 2 7 kmph
(e) 23 kmph
Q43. Manoj gave 60% of his salary to his wife and invested rest amount in mutual funds. His wife spends 30% amount on grocery and 20% on rent. From remaining amount, she purchased gold worth Rs. 18000. Find salary of Manoj.
(a) Rs 60000
(b) Rs 54000
(c) Rs 64000
(d) Rs 58000
(e) Rs 66000
Q44. the length & breadth of a rectangle is in ratio 4 : 7. If perimeter is 88 cm. find area of rectangle.
(a) 414 cm2
(b) 336 cm2
(c) 448cm2
(d) 524 cm2
(e) 396 cm2
Q45. the radius of a circle is 14 cm. what is area of another circle having radius 1.5 times the actual circle?
(a) 1296 cm2
(b) 1386 cm2
(c) 1352 cm2
(d) 1485 cm2
(e) 1276 cm2
Directions (46-50): In the following two equations questions numbered (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both equations and Give answer
(a) If x > y
(b) If x ≥ y
(c) If y > x
(d) If y ≥ x
(e) If x = y or no relation can be established
Q46.
- x2 – 7x + 12 = 0
- y2 – 8y + 12 = 0
Q47.
- 2×2 + x – 28 = 0
- 2y2 – 23y + 56 = 0
Q48.
- 2×2 – 7x – 60 = 0
- 3y2 + 13y + 4 = 0
Q49.
- x2 – 17x – 84 = 0
- y2 + 4y – 117 = 0
Q50.
- x2 = 81
- (y-9)2 = 0
Directions (51-55):- Given line graph shows the data of male & female population in 5 different cities. Read the data carefully and answer the questions.
Q51. By what percent total population of city A is more or less than that of city D?
(a) 45%
(b) 35%
(c) 70%
(d) 30%
(e) 60%
Q52. If in city A, the ratio of male graduates to female graduates is 3 : 4 and total graduates in the city are 70% of total population. Find population of females who are not graduate.
(a) 120
(b) 50
(c) 90
(d) 70
(e) 135
Q53. What is average of male population in all cities?
(a) 465
(b) 455
(c) 440
(d) 460
(e) 430
Q54. What percent of Female population in city C is male population in city E?
(a) 90.2%
(c) 84.5%
(d) 85.5%
(e) 114.2%
(b) 87.5%
Q55. In city B & C, ratio of postgraduates is 7 : 8. Total population who is postgraduate in city B is equal to total population of city A. find ratio of non-postgraduate population in city B to that of city C.
(a) 7 : 3
(b) 8 : 3
(c) 7 : 1
(d) 3 : 1
(e) 8 : 1
Q56. X liters of milk is taken out and replaced with water from a container having 240 liters milk. Now, 20% of the mixture is taken out and replaced with water. In final mixture, the difference in quantity of milk & water is 128 liters. Find X.
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 9
(d) 11
(e) 8
Q57. A can do a work in 36 days while B can do the same in 48 days. If A work for ‘x’ days while B work for ‘x+2’ days then one-third of the work is complete. Find the value of x.
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) 5
Q58. A shopkeeper marked the price of an article by 40% above cost price and gave discount of Rs. 224. On the final amount, he charged 10% tax. In the whole transaction, he earned Rs. 158.6. Find cost price of the article.
(a) Rs 750
(b) Rs 760
(c) Rs 744
(d) Rs 757
(e) Rs 748
Q59. Two friends Pinki and Rinki entered into a partnership by investing an amount of Rs 6000 and Rs 9000 respectively and ratio of their period of investment is 2: 3. Find the profit share of Pinki if profit share of Rinki is Rs 45,000.
(a) Rs 24,000
(b) Rs 20,000
(c) Rs 18,000
(d) Rs 28,000
(e) Rs 25,000
Q60.Time taken to travel a certain distance of ‘x’ km at speed of 40 km/h is 2 hours more than the time taken to travel (x+20) km at speed of 60km/h. Find the time taken to travel (x+40) km at the speed of 40 km/h?
(a) 9 hours
(b) 5 hours
(c) 8 hours
(d) 6 hours
(e) 7.5 hours
Directions (61-65): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?
Note:- (you are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
Q61. 111. 01 + 41. 23 + (4. 96)2 + (2. 09)2 =?
(a) 195
(b) 162
(c) 181
(d) 170
(e) 189
Q62. 109. 07√? -61/21.02 x? = 47.96√?
(a) 441
(b) 169
(c) 250
(d) 121
(e) 324
Q63. 1332.89 + 171.928 + 17.01 + ?2 = 1690.87
(a) 27
(b) 17
(c) 9
(d) 13
(e) 19
Q64. 150.09% of 20 + 322.9/17.02+ √? = (8. 96)
(a) 984
(b) 1024
(c) 1360
(d) 1225
(e) 674
Q65. 56.08% of 149.92 + √28.02 x 6.98 – 11 1/9% o/ 998. 9 = ?
(a) 17
(b) -13
(c) 8
(d) -16
(e) 22
Directions (66-70):- Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions.
There are four hostels i.e. A, B, C and D.
In hostel A: Number of boys are 120 and number of girls are 30% more than that of number of girls in hostel B.
In hostel B: Number of boys are double than that of number of girls.
In hostel C: Number of boys are 100 more than that of boys in hostel A and total boys and girls in C is 1000. In hostel D: Number of boys is 182 more than the number of boys in hostel A. Average of number of girls of hostel A and that of hostel D is 223.Number of boys in hostel D is 98 less that of boys in hostel B.
Q66. Difference between number of boys and girls in hostel D is what percent of difference between boys and girls in hostel B?
(a) 53%
(b) 58%
(c) 63%
(d) 60%
(e) 57.5%
Q67. Find difference between total number of boys and girls together in hostel A and that in hostel D?
(a) 108
(b) 118
(c) 112
(d) 98
(e) 128
Q68. Find ratio of total number of boys and girls together in hostel B to that of in hostel C?
(a) 3: 5
(b) 2: 5
(c) 3: 4
(d) 4: 5
(e) 6: 5
Q69. If 20 boys from each hostel left their hostel then find the average of remaining number of boys in all the hostels?
(a) 239.5
(b) 235
(c) 250.5
(d) 240.5
(e) 245.5
Q70. Total number of boys in hostel A and that of girls in hostel C is what percent more than number of boys in hostel B?
(a) 100%
(b) 125%
(c) 150%
(d) 137.5%
(e) 175%
IBPS PO PRE 2019 Memory Based Set-1 (English) (Questions)
Directions (71-75): In each of the questions given below five words are given in bold. These five words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should interchange with each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it then select option (e) as your choice.
Q71. The (A] academician did a (B) commendable job in (C) highlighting the (D)dangers of the so called lethal weapon (E)systems.
(a) (A) – (E)
(b) (B) – (C)
(c) (B) – (E)
(d) (A) – (D) and (B) and (E)
(e) No interchange required
Q72. Skills are a (A] asset (B) vital in today’s globalised economy where (C) threat jobs are under (D) unskilled of (E) automation.
(a) (A) – (E)
(b) (B) – (C)
(c) (A) – (B) and (C) and (D)
(d) (B) – (E)
(e) No interchange required
Q73. (A) corruption employees (B) facing criminal or (C) government cases are under a (D)scanner of the Modi (E) administration.
(a) (D) – (E)
(b) (A) – (C)
(c) (A) – (B) and (C) and (D)
(d) (B) – (E)
(e) No interchange required
Q74. If the (A) obliged are (B) alternative, the (C) authorities are (D) flights to provide compensation or an (E) cancelled.
(a) (A) – (E)
(b) (B) – (C)
(c) (B) – (E)
(d) (A) – (D) and (B) and (E)
(e) No interchange required
Q75. The revenue (A)department has asked customs (B)officials to ensure strict (C)implementation of (D) import on (E) prohibition of e- cigarettes.
(a) (A) – (E)
(b) (D) – (E)
(c) (B) – (E)
(d) (A) – (D) and (B) and (E)
(e) No interchange required
Directions (76-81): Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions.
A golden age for Western schools In China may be coming to an end in the face of a new government clampdown. China has been a happy hunting ground for Western schools in recent years, as a burgeoning middle class looks to equip their children with the qualifications to get into a Western university, as well as the skills to join a global workforce. The last five years has seen a 64% increase in the number of students enrolled in international schools in China, which now account for 372,000 children in 857 schools.
But from next year, schools will have to select their students via a lottery, rather than being able to pick and choose from among the applicants. The crackdown has been prompted by fears that foreign-owned schools are poaching the brightest children, according to Richard Gaskell, director of international education analysts ISC Research. The move follows changes introduced last years requiring international schools to teach the Chinese curriculum alongside other national programs.
There Is a backlash against the rapid Increase In International schools In China, where It’s perceived that they have been simply creaming off the best students. International schools should put expansion plans on hold until the full effect of the changes becomes apparent next spring, he told the Headmasters’ and Headmistresses’ Conference of leading fee-paying schools in the U.K.
The international schools market has exploded in China in recent years, after the authorities relaxed regulations Chinese children attending foreign-owned schools. Until then, international schools almost entirely served the children of foreign nationals, but opening them up to Chinese children revealed a massive and previously untapped demand.
For the growing Chinese middle class, the schools provided a more reliable route that Chinese national schools for getting into highly-regarded universities in the West, particularly those in the U.S. and U.K. These students, in turn, represent a lucrative source of income, for both the schools themselves and for Western universities. The annual fee for a leading international school is around 280,000 yuan, or $39,000.
China is the largest source of international students at U.K. universities, for more than one in five at undergraduate and postgraduate level. Some of the most prestigious private schools have sought to capitalise on their brand by opening branches in China in recent years. A record 14 British international schools have opened or are due to open in China this year, including outposts of the King’s School, Canterbury, and Shrewsbury School, which counts Charles Darwin among its alumni.
But despite the increased scrutiny, there are still opportunities for international schools to open in China, given the “massive demand” among Chinese families. There is a deep desire amongst the wealthy, middle class and young Chinese parents for a Western style of education. Parents want an international education but also want their children to retain their culture and identity, he added, as well as excellent exam results and “places at the top universities.”
Q76. Which of the following statements is not true as per the information given in the passage above?
(I) Many international universities are cancelling their plans to build universities in China owing to increasing restriction by Chinese government.
(II) Although there is huge demand for UK universities in China, the number of UK universities is coming down.
(III) Parents want their children to be more inclined towards the Western education for stronger workforce instead of retaining their culture and identity.
(a) Only A
(b) Both A & C
(c) All A, B, C
(d) Both B & C
(e) Only C
Q77. Which of the following words means the SAME as RELAXED, as highlighted in the passage?
(a) associated
(b) reached
(c) dressed
(d) eased
(e) stressed
Q78. Which of the following words can fit in “_____”, as given in the passage?
(a) intertwining
(b) briefing
(c) accounting
(d) spending
(e) bettering
Q79. Which of the following phrases can replace the phrase “in the face of’, as given in the passage?
(a) because of
(b) against of
(c) in lieu of
(d) emerging
(e) in terms of
Q80. What are the probable reasons for adoption of new rules by the Chinese government regarding coming of Western Schools in China?
(a) International students in China have suddenly increased manifold
(b) Chinese government endorsees to attract the International schools to invest in schooling infrastructure in China
(c) Most of the international schools only pick the intelligent students
(d) Most of the international organizations do not invest in Chinese schooling system
(e) None of the given options is true
Q81. Which of the following is/ are the reasons for parents in China to prefer international schools for their children?
(I) The syllabus in Chinese schools in complex and therefore should be avoided.
(II) There is lack of local teachers within Chinese schools
(III) International schools open up more opportunities for the students to admissions to foreign universities and better jobs.
(a) Only (III)
(b) Both (II) & (III)
(c) Only (II)
(d) All (I), (II), (III)
(e) None of these
Directions (82-83): In the following question a sentence is given following with three words. Choose among the following words which reflect its meaning in the sentence correctly.
Q82. The minister was____ by the authorities for not paying the taxes.
(A) Hounded
(B) Moved
(C) Pursued
(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Only (A) and (B)
(e) Only (A) and (C)
Q83. Police said the case_____ huge amounts of public money which have been diverted fraudulently
and that interrogation is needed to track the funds.
(A) hours
(B) involves
(C) conduct
(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Only (A) and (B)
(e) All (A), (B) and (C)
Directions (84-89): In the following questions each sentence is divided in five parts. Read each sentence to find out if there is any error in any of the parts . The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer if there is no error, the answer is (e).
Q84. The farmer finds (A)/ it difficult to find (B)/ buyers to sell their (C)/ fresh organic produce (D).
(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) No error
Q85. It were not Mr. Kejriwal’s fault (A) /that the BJP Mayors are “incompetent” (B)/ and “corrupt” that they were not (C)/ invited, said Sanjay Singh (D).
(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) No error
Q86. The Supreme Court says Canadian (A)/judges has been too soft on (B)/ punishment for 30 years in giving (C)/offenders the lowest possible sentence (D)/.
(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) No error
Q87. The government is (A)/ expected to issue a statement (B) /regarding the investigation (C)/ to the press (D).
(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) No error
Q88. The company, Maruti Suzuki, (A) / has been producing ten million (B) / units since it was (C)/ established in 1982 (D).
(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) No error
Q89. Under no circumstances (A)/you would be allowed to remain (B)/ out of home after ten o’clock ,
(C) /said Radhika to her son (D).
(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) No error
Directions (90-94): In the following questions five sentences are given with a phrase highlighted. These phrases may or may not be correct. Following the sentences are four phrases, from which one phrase will replace the incorrect phrase. The number of that correct phrase will be your answer. If the phrase is correct then option (e) i.e. “No replacement required” will be your answer.
Q90. Although of the praise, Mr. Trump never formally nominated Mr. McAleenan to run the agency
(a) Despite of the praise
(b) Whether the praise
(c) Despite the praise
(d) Although the praised
(e) No replacement required
Q91. Yesterday, ahead of Diwali, the Union government announce the Non-Productivity Linked Bonus (Ad-hoc) equivalent to 30 days of emoluments for the accounting year 2018-19.
(a) government announces the
(b) government have announced the
(c) government announced the
(d) government is announced the
(e) No replacement required
Q92. The two playwrights worked in close collaborating with each other on the script.
(a) in close collaborate
(b) on close collaborating
(c) on close collaborate
(d) in close collaboration
(e) No replacement required
Q93. If UK will agree to the provisions on e-commerce, it will mean it won’t be allowed to impose data privatisation rules on industries looking to do business in UK.
(a) agree to the
(b) agrees to the
(c) shall agrees to the
(d) will agrees to the
(e) No replacement required
Q94. U.S. Customs and Border Protection said this week that arrests at the U.S.-Mexico border fall in September for the fourth month in the row.
(a) border fell in
(b) border falled in
(c) border falling in
(d) border has fell in
(e) No replacement required
Directions (95-100): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
For decades, there has been evidence that classroom techniques designed to get students to (95) in the learning process produces better educational outcomes at virtually all levels.
And a new Harvard study suggests it may be important to let students know it.
The study shows that, though students felt as if they learned more through (96) lectures, they actually learned more when taking part in classrooms that employed so-called active-learning strategies. Lead author Louis Deslauriers. the director of science teaching and learning and senior physics preceptor, knew that students would learn more from active learning. But many students and faculty remained hesitant to switch to it.
“Often, students seemed genuinely to prefer smooth-as-silk traditional lectures,” Deslauriers said. “We wanted to take them at their word. Perhaps they actually felt like they learned more from lectures than they did from (97) learning.”
The question of whether students’ perceptions of their learning (98) with how well they’re actually learning is particularly important, Deslauriers said, because while students eventually see the value of active learning, initially it can feel (99).
“Deep learning is hard work. The effort involved in active learning can be misinterpreted as a sign of poor learning,” he said. “On the other hand, a superstar lecturer can explain things in such a way as to make students feel like they are learning more than they actually are.”
To understand that dichotomy, Deslauriers and his co-authors designed an experiment that would expose students in an introductory physics class to both traditional lectures and active learning.
When the results were tallied, the authors found that students felt as if they learned more from the lectures, but in fact scored higher on tests following the active learning sessions.
Ultimately, Deslauriers said, the study shows that it’s important to ensure that neither instructors nor students are (100) into thinking that lectures are the best learning option. “Students might give fabulous evaluations to an amazing lecturer based on this feeling of learning, even though their actual learning isn’t optimal,” he said. “This could help to explain why study after study shows that student evaluations seem to be completely uncorrelated with actual learning.”
Q95.
(a) deadly
(b) incurable
(c) participate
(d) take
(e) look
Q96.
(a) unusual
(b) traditional
(c) duration
(d) intolerable
(e) Myriad
Q97.
(a) active
(b) result
(c) recent
(d) Counter
(e) cluster
Q98.
(a) matches
(b) aims
(c) tells
(d) fails
(e) harmony
Q99.
(a) kindle
(b) registered
(c) turning
(d) frustrating
(e) courage
Q100.
(a) tied
(b) consent
(c) fooled
(d) needs
(e) emptied
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IBPS PO Previous Papers Pdf - PO/MT Question Papers
Exam Preparation: Tips for Preparing Exams | Top Exam Preparation Tips
Directions (1 – 5): The table given below shows the total number of patients admitted to a hospital in five different months and the ratio of child patients to aged patients. Read the data carefully and answer the questions
| Month | Total patients | Ratio of Child : Aged |
|---|---|---|
| January | 640 | 5 : 3 |
| February | 720 | 11 : 7 |
| March | 450 | 5 : 4 |
| April | 840 | 7 : 5 |
| May | 480 | 7 : 9 |
1. Question
Find the ratio of total aged patients admitted to the hospital in January & February together to the total child admitted in March?
Answer:-A
Explanation:-
Required ratio = 520 : 250 = 52 : 25
Thus the required ratio = 52 : 25
Short trick:
From the question, we can see that it is asking for the ratio of the total children admitted in March. So, our answer will be a multiple of 5. from the option only option a has the multiple of 5.
2. Question
Answer :-B
Explanation :-
Thus, the required percentage = 75%
3. Question
Find the difference between the total Child patients admitted to the hospital in January and April?
Thus,the required difference = 90
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4. Question
Thus,the required average = 325
5. Question
If the total aged patients admitted in the hospital in June is 20% more than that of in April and the ratio of Child to aged patients admitted in June is 7 : 9, then find the total children admitted in the hospital in June?
Directions (6-10):
Find out the approximate value of x in the given questions: (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.
6.Question
130.09 % of 49.98 + x² + 10.03 = (13.98)²
7. Question
14.01 ÷ 1/x +140.03 = 419.97
8.Question
(16.99)² + x = (21.01)2
9.Question
x/20.01 + 99.98 = 24.99% of 840.01
10.Question
x³ – 49.99% of 112 = (13.02)² − (26.98)⅔
11. Question
P, Q and R three girls hired a car for Rs. 720 and used it for 2, 4 and 3 hours respectively. Find the hire charges paid by R.
12. Question
X, Y and Z three partners started a business jointly. X and Y invested money in the ratio 2 : 1 whereas Y and Z invested capital in the ratio 5 : 3. If their total annual profit is Rs. 16200, then find the Y’s share in the total profit.
13. Question
The ratio between the present ages of Tanmay and Vivan is 3:7, respectively. After 4 yr, Vivan’s age will be 39 yr. What was Tanmay’s age 4 yr later?
(a) 11 yr
(b) 13 yr
(c) 19 yr
(d) 18 yr
(e) None of the above
Tricks :-
7 unit ——-> (39-4) = 35
1 unit = 5
Thus, Tanmay’s age after 4 yr = (3 × 5)+4
= 19
14.Question
The length and radius of a cylindrical rod are 14 m and 2 cm respectively. How many such cylindrical rods can be made out of 0.44 metre³ of the rod?
15.Question
Given, the total number of employees= 480
∴ x = 40
Hence, option D is correct.
Directions ( 16 -20 ):- In the following questions contain two equations I and II. You have to solve both the equations and determine the relationship between them and give answers as,
a) x > y
b) x ≥ y
c) x < y
d) x ≤ y
e) x = y or the relation cannot establish.
16. Question
So, x ≥ y .
17.Question
So, Here x > y .
18.Question
Here , x < y
19.Question
So, x > y .
20.Question
So ,here x < y .
21. Question
What is the probability of getting a 3 or a 4 when a single 6 – sided dies is rolled?
A) 1/8
B) 1/18
C) 1/2
D) 1/3
E) 1/6
Tricks:-
P(3 or 4) = 1/6 + 1/6 = 1/3
22. Question
8 cm and 12 cm are the sides of a triangle. The angle included between the two sides is 45°. Find out the area of the triangle.
a) 80√2 cm²
b) 70√3 cm²
c) 30√2 cm²
d) 24√2 cm²
e) 150√3 cm²
Answer :- D
Explanation :-
Let a = 8 cm
b= 12 cm
Area = 1/2 × ab Sinθ
=1/2 × 8 ×12 × Sin45°
=1/2 ×8 × 12 ×1/√2
Thus, the area of the triangle = 24√2 cm².
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23. Question
In a classroom, a girl multiplied a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3. What is the percentage error in this calculation?
a) 64 %
b) 35 %
c) 26 %
d) 58 %
e) none of these
Answer :- A
Explanation :-
3/5 , 5/3
LCM = 15
3/5 × 15 = 9
5/3 × 15 = 25
Required percentage =(25 – 9) / 25 × 100 %
= 64 %
Thus, the error is = 64 %
24. Question
A young lady does a piece of work in 3 days. That piece of work was done by an old woman in 4 days. If the young girl and old woman worked together, they got total wages of Rs. 3500. How much did the old woman get?
a) 1500
b) 2000
c) 1000
d) 1200
e) None of these
Answer:-A
Tricks:-
Young girl : old woman
Time = 3 : 4
Efficiency= 4 : 3
(Time and efficiency are inversely proportional)
Old Woman get = 3500 × 3/7
= 1500
Thus, the old woman gets the wages of Rs 1500.
25. Question
Priya covered a certain distance between her house and the cinema hall by walking. With an average speed of 15 km/hr, she is late by 10 mins. If she increases her speed to 20 km/hr, she reaches the cinema hall 5 min earlier. What is the distance between her house and the cinema hall?
a) 15 km
b) 10 km
c) 12 km
d) 18 km
e) 35 km
Answer: A
Explanation:-
Let the distance = x
time difference= (10 + 5 ) min = 15/60 hrs
According to question,
x / 15 – x /20 = 1/4
4x – 3x = 15
x = 15
Thus the distance is = 15 km
Short Trick:
=15×25×15/5×60
Directions:- (26-30): Read the data carefully and answer the questions :
There are four government Schools A, B, C and D . Total of 2600 students studying in the three schools A, B, & C and the ratio of total students studying in these three (A : B : C) is 21: 16: 15 respectively. The number of boys in A school is 250 more than that of girls in C school and the ratio of the number of girls in A school to that of boys in C school is 9: 8. The number of girls in B school is 70% of the number of boys in A school. Total 1000 students studying in D school and the number of boys in D school is 200 more than that of in C school.
Explanation (26 – 30)
| SCHOOLS | BOYS | GIRLS | TOTAL |
|---|---|---|---|
| A | 600 | 450 | 1050 |
| B | 380 | 420 | 800 |
| C | 400 | 350 | 750 |
| D | 600 | 400 | 1000 |
Note:- Above explanation covers questions 26 to 30.
26. Question
Find the average number of boys in A & D School?
27. Question
Total girls in A School are what per cent more than that of in D School?
28. Question
Find the ratio of total students in C school to total girls in A & C together?
29. Question
30. Question
Total girls in A school is what per cent of total boys in D School?
Directions ( 31 – 32):-
32. Question
What is the probability that only 1 club [either A club or B club] will win the match?
1. 1/2
2. 1/3
3. 1
4. 2/3
33. Question
35. Question
Two jars P and Q contain a mixture of Alcohol and water. The ratio of alcohol and water in jar P and Q are in ratios 2 : 1 and 2 : 3 respectively. In what ratio these two mixtures should be mixed so that the new mixture contains 50% alcohol and 50% water.
IBPS PO Prelims Reasoning Question Paper 2019
Direction (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, and T are sitting around a rectangular table in such a way that four persons sit on each of the four corners of the table and the other four persons sit on the middle of each side. The one who sits at the corner of the table faces outside the center of the table and the one who sits at the middle side of the table faces towards the center of the table. Persons sitting on opposite sides are sitting opposite to each other. The person who sits second to the left of R sits second to the right of the one who sits to the immediate right of Q. Only one person sits between R and O. Q does not sit near to O. Either M sits second to the left of T or second to the right of T. One person sits between M and O. N sits fourth to the left of S. P sits on one of the corners. S is not an immediate neighbor of R.
Solution (1-5):
Q1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?
(a) Q
(b) S
(c) P
(d) T
(e) N
Solution: d
T does not belong to that group.
Q2. Who among the following sits third to the right of P?
(a) Q
(b) T
(c) O
(d) M
(e) S
Solution: b
T is third to the right of P.
Q3. What is the position of R with respect to S?
(a) Third to the right
(b) Second to the right
(c) Second to the left
(d) Third to the left
(e) None of these
Solution: a
R is third to the right of S.
Q4. How many persons sit between P and R when counted to the right of P?
(a) One
(b) None
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four
Solution: b
None of the people sits between P and R.
Q5. Who among the following faces to O?
(a) T
(b) N
(c) S
(d) Q
(e) None of these
Solution: a
T is facing O.
Q6. In the word ‘INVITED’, how many pairs of the letters have the same number of letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) More than four Direction
Solution: b
Two Pairs of letters have the same number of letters between them in the word.
Direction (7-9): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven members are living in the family. O is the daughter of U. M is the brother of T. S is the mother-in-law of A. M is married to A. M is the uncle of O. N is the father of M and he has only two children.
Solution (7-9):
Q7. What is the relation of M with respect to U?
(a) Brother
(b) Sister in law
(c) Mother
(d) Brother in law
(e) Aunt
Solution: d
M is a Brother in law of U.
Q8. If C is the brother of M, then what is the relation of C with respect to O?
(a) Aunt
(b) Uncle
(c) Father
(d) Mother
(e) Sister
Solution: b
C is the uncle of O.
Q9. If U is the father of O, then what is the relation of T with respect to U?
(a) Mother
(b) Husband
(c) Father
(d) Father in law
(e) Wife
Solution: e
T is a wife of U.
Q10. If “3985436247’’ 1 is added to all the even numbers and 1 is subtracted from all the odd numbers, then what is the sum of the digits which is sixth from the left end and fourth from the right end?
(a) 9
(b) 12
(c) 11
(d) 10
(e) None of these
Solution: a
The sum of digits is 9.
Direction (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Ten persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, and J were born on two different dates 13 and 26 of five different months viz. March, May, June, September, and November but not necessarily in the same order. A was born on the 13th of the month which has 31 days. Three persons were born between A and E. One person was born between E and G. Four persons were born between E and D. The number of persons was born after D is the same as the number of persons born before C. B was born before I but not in the month of March. I was born before E. J was born before H on the same date but in different months.
Solution (11-15):
Q11. How many persons were born after J?
(a) None
(b) Two
(c) More than five
(d) Four
(e) Five
Solution: b
Two persons born after J.
Q12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) F-A
(b) G-E
(c) H-A
(d) E-C
(e) B-D
Solution: c
H-A does not belong to that group.
Q13. How many persons were born between I and C?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Two
(e) None of these
Solution: d
Two persons were born between I and C.
Q14. The number of persons was born after E is the same as the number of persons born before ___.
(a) B
(b) G
(c) F
(d) J
(e) None of these
Solution: a
The number of persons was born after E is the same as the number of persons born before B.
Q15. Which of the following is the odd one?
(a) F
(b) A
(c) G
(d) E
(e) H
Solution: e
H is different among them.
Direction (16-20): In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow
Q16. Statements: S>M>R=F; C<V=B>N; F ≥Y<X ≤ C
Conclusion:
I: S>X
II: Y<B
Solution: b
Conclusion:
I: S>X(False)
II: Y<B(True)
Hence, only conclusion II follows.
Q17. Statements: L>C<G<H≤J, T<X<C≤V;
Conclusion:
I: T<G
II: X<J
Solution: e
Conclusion:
I: T<G(True)
II: X<J(True)
Hence, both conclusions, I and II follow.
Q18. Statements: O≥W≥E; V<Y≤U≤I; E=S<V;
Conclusion:
I: O≥V
II: S≤I
Solution: d
Conclusion
I: O≥V (False)
II: S≤I (False)
Hence, neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Q19. Statements: H>D<Z<X<E, B<S<D=F>G;
Conclusion
I: B<E
II: E≥G
Solution: a
Conclusion
I: B<E(True)
II: E≥G(False)
Hence, the only conclusion I follows.
Q20. Statements: C=V>B>K; N>B<S=D<F<H; G ≥ Y ≥ Q= V
Conclusion
I: G >K
II: K<H
Solution: e
Conclusion
I: G>K (True)
II: K<H (True)
Hence, both conclusions, I and II follow.
Direction (21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
In a certain code language:
- “not talk between only” is coded as “lg pf ro mi”
- “only should be helpful” is coded as “ro tc ac jq”
- “not be time standard” is coded as “mi dg tc pa”
- “Focus between standard hours” is coded as “hy dg pf ks”
Solution (21-25):
Word | Code |
|---|---|
| not | mi |
| talk | lg |
| between | pf |
| only | ro |
| should/helpful | jq/ ac |
| be | tc |
| time | pa |
| standard | dg |
| focus/hours | hy/ks |
Q21. What is the code for “not time” in the given code language?
(a) pf ro
(b) ro mi
(c) mi pa
(d) jq pf
(e) None of these
Solution: c
‘mi pa’ is the code of “not time”.
Q22. What is the code for “standard” in the given code language?
(a) dg
(b) ac
(c) jq
(d) mi
(e) None of these
Solution: a
‘dg’ is the code of “standard”.
Q23. What is the code for “only” in the given code language?
(a) lg
(b) ro
(c) tc
(d) pa
(e) None of these
Solution: b
The code for “only” is ‘ro’.
Q24. The code ‘tc’ is coded as which of the following word?
(a) not
(b) time
(c) focus
(d) be
(e) None of these
Solution: d
The word ‘be’ is coded as ‘tc’.
Q25. What may be the possible code for “focus real” in the given code language?
(a) ks ze
(b) ro hy
(c) hy tr
(d) Either (a) or (c)
(e) pf me
Solution: d
Either options (a) or (c) may be the possible code for “focus real” in the given code language.
Direction (26-29): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six persons are sitting in a row facing to the north and they have different ages but not necessarily in the same order. T sits third from the one who sits on one of the ends of the row. The one who is 12 years old sits second to the right of T. The number of persons sitting to the right of the one who is 12 years old is the same as the number of persons sitting to the left of V. W sits second to the right of the one who is 6 years old. Two persons sit between V and X, whose age is twice that V. U sits to the right of S. The one who is 36 years old sits third to the left of the one who is 15 years old. The age of W is 18 years.
Solution (26-29):
Q26. If S is 3 years older than T, then which of the following is the age of S?
(a) 9 Years
(b) 33 Years
(c) 21 Years
(d)39 Years
(e) None of these
Solution: d
Age of S is 39 years
Q27. What is the total age of T and X?
(a) 44
(b) 48
(c) 18
(d) 42
(e) 27
Solution: b
The total age of T and X is 48.
Q28. How many persons sit between S and V?
(a) More than three
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) One
(e) None
Solution: e
None persons sit between S and V.
Q29. Who among the following sits at the extreme end of the row?
(a) T
(b) X
(c) U
(d) W
(e) V
Solution: c
U sits end of the row.
Direction (30-34): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven persons were born in different years i.e. 1953, 1963, 1968, 1976, 1990, 1993, 1998. 2019 is the base year for measuring the age of all persons. No more than two persons were born before H. One person was born between L and O and none of them have even-numbered age. The number of people who were born before M is equal to the number of people who were born after Y. Difference between the age of N and O is not less than 20 years. N was born before Y and after G. Either H or M have odd-numbered age.
Solution (30 -34):
Person | Years | Age (Based on 2019) |
|---|---|---|
G | 1953 | 66 |
M | 1963 | 56 |
H | 1968 | 51 |
N | 1976 | 43 |
L | 1990 | 29 |
Y | 1993 | 26 |
O | 1998 | 21 |
Q30. In which of the following year N was born?
(a) 1953
(b) 1968
(c) 1990
(d) 1998
(e) 1976
Solution: e
N was born in 1976.
Q31. What is the sum of the age of G and O?
(a) 92
(b) 69
(c) 87
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Solution: c
The sum of the age of G and O is 87 years.
Q32. Who among the following is the oldest person?
(a) H
(b) Y
(c) G
(d) N
(e) None of these
Solution: c
G is the oldest person among them.
Q33. Which of the following pair of combinations is true?
(a) H- 29
(b) Y-26
(c) G-56
(d) O-43
(e) None is true
Solution: b
Y – 26 pair of combination is true.
Q34. How many persons are younger than M?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
Solution: e
More than three-person younger than M.
Q35. In the given word ‘WANTED’, in which consonant changed into its previous letter and the vowel into its next letter (according to the alphabetical order) and then all letters are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right then which of the following letter is fourth from the left end?
(a) F
(b) V
(c) B
(d) M
(e) S
Solution: d
M is the fourth from the left end.
IBPS PO Prelims English Question Paper 2019
IBPS conducts various banks exams like IBPS Clerk, IBPS PO, IBPS SO etc. to encourage the Recruitment of young talent in various National Public Sector Banks. These exams are conducted to fill 4-5K vacancies every year.
When we talk about the IBPS PO exam, it is conducted for the Recruitment of “Probationary Officer” in the various Public sector banks of India. IBPS PO Notification 2022 will be released in August/September 2022, It will be a golden opportunity for those, who want to serve in Public Sector Banks.
In this article, we have provided “Memory-Based English Paper of IBPS PO Prelims 2019”, to give you an idea of the current syllabus and pattern of IBPS PO and score good marks in the exam.
For more practice read our other articles related to it.
IBPS PO PRELIMS MEMORY-BASED 2019
Directions (1-5): Read the given passage and answer the following questions based on the passage.
Haphazard urban planning and human overpopulation have led to a correspondingly huge population of street dogs in most Indian cities. Up to 300 million stray dogs roam the planet, with about 30 million in India alone. These free-ranging canines often come into conflict with people, and, particularly in India, pose a public health risk as carriers of rabies, a fatal virus that kills up to 20,000 people a year in India, most of them children, according to the WHO. This has made the management of stray dogs a polarizing subject, with some people killing the animals inhumanely.
The urban environment in India has two features that encourage sizeable street animal populations – exposed garbage and slums. Street dogs are scavengers and garbage provides an ample source of food for them. Moreover, in India and most other south-east Asian countries, street dogs are also kept as free-roaming pets by slum dwellers and street dwellers such as ragpickers. Removal or killing of street dogs seems to be the most obvious method of controlling the population, but it has actually proved to be completely useless. This is because even when large numbers of dogs are captured or worse, killed, the conditions that sustain dog populations remain unchanged.
Dogs are territorial and each one lives in its own specific area. Even when they are removed, the food source, i.e., garbage, is still available in abundance. So, dogs from neighbouring areas enter the vacant territories. Pups born and growing up in the surrounding areas also move in to occupy these vacant niches. The few dogs who escape capture and remain behind attack these newcomers, leading to frequent and prolonged dog fights. Since they are not spayed or neutered, all the dogs who escape capture continue to mate, leading to more fighting.
In the course of fights, dogs often accidentally redirect their aggression towards people passing by, so many humans get bitten. Females with pups are aggressive and often attack pedestrians who come too close to their litter. Street dogs breed at a very high rate and it has been estimated that two dogs can multiply to over 300 in three years. Since dogs who are removed are quickly replaced, the population of dogs on the street does not decrease at all. The main factors leading to dog aggression – migration and mating – continue to exist, so the nuisance factor remains.
Since the removal of dogs actually increases dog-related problems, the effective solution is to sterilise the dogs, vaccinate them against rabies and put them back in their own areas. When dogs are sterilised and put back in their own area, the population and the problems caused by dogs both reduce. Each dog guards its own territory and does not allow new dogs to enter. Since they are all neutered, they no longer mate or multiply. The main factors leading to dog aggression – migration and mating – are also eliminated. So, dog fights reduce dramatically. With the decrease in fighting, bites to humans also decrease. Since females no longer have pups to protect, this source of dog aggression is also eliminated. Over a period of time, as the sterilised dogs die natural deaths, the population is greatly reduced.
Q1.
According to the passage, what is/are the reason(s) behind sizeable street animal populations in urban India?
I. Kind-hearted people who often feed stray dogs.
II. Street dogs breed at a very high rate.
III. Urban centres in India feature exposed to garbage and slums that ensure their survival.
(a) Only I & II
(b) Only II
(c) Only I & III
(d) Only II & III
(e) All of I, II & III
Ans (d)
Sol.
The 3rd and 4th statement of the 4th paragraph states that “Street dogs breed at a very high rate and it has been estimated that two dogs can multiply to over 300 in three years. Since dogs who are removed are quickly replaced, the population of dogs on the street does not decrease at all.”
Also, the 1st sentence of the 2nd paragraph states that “The urban environment in India has two features that encourage sizeable street animal populations – exposed garbage and slums.”
Thus, statements II & III are the reasons behind the large animal population on the street.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q2.
According to the passage, which of the following is/are TRUE?
I. Dogs are territorial and each one lives in its own specific area
II. About 30 million stray dogs roam the streets of India.
III. The management of stray dogs is a polarizing issue.
(a) Only I & III
(b) Only III
(c) Only I & II
(d) Only II & III
(e) All of I, II & III
Ans (E)
Sol.
Statement I is true as per 1st sentence of the 3rd paragraph. Statement II is true as per the 2nd sentence of the 1st paragraph. Statement III is also true as per the last sentence of the 1st paragraph. Hence, option (e) is the correct answer.
Q3.
According to the passage, which of the following events can happen when dogs are removed from the streets, but the garbage is not taken care of?
I. Dogs from neighbouring areas enter the vacant territories.
II. Pups born and growing up in the surrounding areas also move in to occupy these vacant niches.
III. With an abundance of garbage and no dogs to hunt them, the streets will get overfilled with rats, who will thrive in place of dogs.
(a) Only I & II
(b) Only I & III
(c) Only III
(d) Only II & III
(e) All of I, II & III
Ans (a)
Sol.
The 3rd paragraph gives us the details of the things that happen when the dogs are tried to be removed from the streets without taking care of the garbage.
It states that “dogs from neighbouring areas enter the vacant territories. Pups born and growing up in the surrounding areas also move in to occupy these vacant niches.” Thus, statements I & II are true and is the correct chain of events that take place.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q4.
According to the passage, which of the following can be one of the ways to control the population of street dogs in India?
(a) Displacing them from the streets to some other place.
(b) Sterilization of street dogs.
(c) Killing them in the most humane way possible.
(d) Adopting some of them as pets.
(e) None of the above
Ans (b)
Sol.
The 2nd sentence of the last paragraph states that “When dogs are sterilized and put back in their own area, the population and the problems caused by dogs both reduce.” Thus, sterilizing dogs can be one of the ways to control the population of street dogs. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
Q5.
According to the passage, what is/are the risk(s) posed by stray dogs?
I. They often come into conflict with people.
II. They can cause a collision while running on the road, which might even result in injury to other people and also to itself.
III. They pose a public health risk as they carry the rabies virus, which can be fatal, especially to children.
(a) Only I & II
(b) Only II & III
(c) Only I & III
(d) Only II
(e) All of I, II & III
Ans (C)
Sol.
The 3rd sentence of the 1st passage states that “These free-ranging canines (i.e., dogs) often come into conflict with people, and, particularly in India, pose a public health risk as carriers of rabies, a fatal virus that kills up to 20,000 people a year in India, most of them children, according to the WHO.” Thus, statements I & III are true as per the passage.
Statement II is not a part of the passage, and it also does not hint towards it. Thus, statement II cannot be said to be one of the risks posed by stray dogs, as per the passage.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Direction (6-7): In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences, which are divided into two parts, are given. Column I which has three statements (A, B and C), consist of the first half of the sentence and Column II which has three statements (D, E and F) consists of the second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, to make sentences both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the option as your answer.
Q6.
I
A. You must take some local spices with you if
B. These spices are dried and they come in sealed vacuum packets that
C. This souvenir is perfect for
II
D. You want to bring the taste of Thai home.
E. anyone who loves cooking.
F. You can easily carry back home with you.
(a) B-E and C-F
(b) A-E and B-F
(c) A-F
(d) B-F
(e) A-E and C-F
Ans (d)
Sol. A goes with D providing the meaning that the taste of Thai food could be brought home by taking some local spices along.
B goes with F as spices in vacuum-sealed packets makes it easy to carry without the risk of spilling.
C cannot be paired with E as ‘anyone’ would take a singular verb and “love” is plural.
So, the pairs come as A-D and B-F. Of these, we only have B-F as an option. Hence, the correct answer is D.
Q7.
I
A. Exploring Bangkok’s popular markets will introduce
B. You can buy handcrafted cushion covers, wicker baskets, pottery dishes
C. These products are beautifully handcrafted by local artisans so they
II
D. are worth taking back with you as souvenirs for your family and friends.
E. your wanted souvenir items are accepted at the customs.
F. you to a variety of Thai handicrafts
(a) B-E and C-F
(b) A-E, B-F and C-D
(c) A-F and C-D
(d) B-F
(e) A-E and C-F
Ans (c)
Sol. “Introduce” is generally followed by the subject (who is getting introduced) + to + what is being introduced. So, A goes with F, where ‘you’ is getting introduced to handicrafts.
C ends with ‘they’ which should be followed by a verb. Since D starts with a verb (are), C & D make a pair.
Hence, the correct answer is C.
Let us get to the other approach of elimination after figuring out that one code that you are sure of being correct. When we start with the first column, we know two things,
• where ‘you’ is getting introduced to handicrafts.
• and Thai and Bangkok should go together
Hence, AF is correct. When we look at the options, it is only option C that has AF as one of the pairs. Thus, we can nullify the other options and get to the answer without spending much time on the question.
Direction (8-10): Direction: In each of the following questions, a connector and four statements are given. Connect the statements by the word given without changing the intended meaning. Choose the correct option accordingly to form a correct and coherent sentence.
Q8. ALTHOUGH
(A) A $2 million association bid for a stake in a British highway project led deal-making by home investors in the second half.
(B) P Chidambaram said that his party will clean up economic data if it wins the election
(C) The overall deal value collapse by 21 per cent as there were no mega investors for entrepreneurs.
(D) Economists and investors are increasingly showing that India’s official economic data don’t require any overhauling.
(a) Only D-A
(b) Only B-D
(c) Only A-C
(d) Both A-C and B-D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
Sol. A-C should be connected as we can see that in ‘A’, a bid of $2 million has been mentioned, and in ‘C’, it is mentioned that there are no mega investors of it so to connect them, the best connector should be ‘although’.
In the same manner in ‘B’ & ‘D’, should be connected as in B cleaning up of economic data is mentioned whereas in D economic does not require any overhauling is shown.
Thus D is the correct option to choose.
Q9. WHEREAS
(A) Within the pulse fragment, Moong dal and beans production are expected to decline probably by a few per cent i.e. up to 5%.
(B) Jowar & Bajra farmers are shifting their pattern of cropping to other cash crops due to lack of income.
(C) Lentils is expected a marginal hike in the area at 2.12 per cent and a significant incline in production at 3.42 per cent
(D) The pigeon pea or red gram pulse is expected to increase marginally by 3.54 per cent.
(a) Only A-B
(b) Only A-C
(c) Both A-C and B-D
(d) Only A-C and A-D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
Sol. A-C should be connected as we see that In C the context is of Lentil which is a pulse, the context of which is mentioned in A, thus A-C should be connected.
Q10. PROVIDED THAT
(A) This indicates less profit cut for banks as the spread between what they are paying for funds and what they are charging for them declines.
(B) It may speed up in the months to come than what banks can earn by lending out those deposits.
(C) There is a rumour floating around that BJP may come into power again and the party is sure of the BJP-led ruling dispensation winning over 300 seats In the house.
(D) The exit poll result predicted and published by media houses should be accurate.
(a) Only C-D
(b)Only B-C
(c) Only A-C
(d) Both A-C and B-D
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
Sol. In C, some favourable prediction has been made which can be true if the prediction of exit poll is correct so to connect C-D, ‘provided that’ is the best option to choose.
Thus, A is the correct option to choose.
Directions (11-12): In the following question a sentence is given following with three words. Choose the correct word/words from the given words which fits/fit in the sentence correctly.
Q11. The minister was __________________ by the authorities for not paying the taxes.
(A) Hounded
(B) Moved
(C) Pursued
(a)Only (A)
(b)Only (B)
(c)Only (C)
(d)Only (A) and (B)
(e)Only (A) and (C)
Ans (e)
Sol. The correct option is E as ‘hounded’ means to harass or pursue relentlessly, in the same manner, ‘pursued’ also means to chase, and it has also the same context as of ‘hounded’. ‘Move’ is incorrect as it means to progress or develop. Thus, option E is correct.
Q12. Police said the case ____________ huge amounts of public money which have been diverted fraudulently and that interrogation is needed to track the funds.
(A) hours
(B) involves
(C) conduct
(a)Only (A)
(b)Only (B)
(c)Only (C)
(d)Only (A) and (B)
(e)All (A), (B) and (C)
Ans (b)
Sol. ‘involves’ which means ‘included’ is the only correct option, all other options fail to fit contextually.
Directions (13-17): In each of the questions given below five words are given in bold. These words may or may not be at their correct position. Choose the pair/pairs with the correct combination of words that should interchange with each other to make the sentence both grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct pair of words that can replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is given, choose option (e) as your choice.
Q13. The (A) academician did a (B) commendable job in (C) highlighting the (D)dangers of the so called lethal weapon (E)systems.
(a) (A) – (E)
(b) (B) – (C)
(c) (B) – (E)
(d) (B) and (E) and (A) – (D)
(e) No interchange required
Ans (e)
Sol. The given sentence is grammatically and contextually correct. No interchange in the position of the words is required.
Q14. Skills are a (A) asset (B) vital in today’s globalized economy where (C) threat jobs are under (D) unskilled of (E) automation.
(a) (A) – (E)
(b) (B) – (C)
(c) (A) – (B) and (C) and (D)
(d) (B) – (E)
(e) No interchange required
Ans (c)
Sol. In the given statement, only the position of word ‘automation’ is correct. The words A-B and C-D need to be interchanged to make sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Thus, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q15. If the (A) obliged are (B) alternative, the (C) authorities are (D) flights to provide compensation or an (E) cancelled.
(a) (A) – (E)
(b) (B) – (C)
(c) (B) – (E)
(d) (B) and (E) and (A) – (D)
(e) No interchange required
Ans (d)
Sol. In the given statement, position of the word ‘authorities’ is correct. Words (A)-(D) and (B)- (E) need to be interchange to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Thus, option (d) should be the correct answer.
Q16. (A) corruption employees (B) facing criminal or (C) government cases are under a (D)scanner of the Modi (E) administration.
(a) (D) – (E)
(b) (A) – (C)
(c) (A) – (B) and (C) and (D)
(d) (B) – (E)
(e) No interchange required
Ans (b)
Sol. Sol. Here, In the given statement, (B), (D) and (E) are positioned correctly. However, the words (A) and (C) are required to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
Q17. The revenue (A)department has asked customs (B)officials to ensure strict (C)implementation of (D) import on (E) prohibition of e-cigarettes.
(a) (A) – (E)
(b) (D) – (E)
(c) (B) – (E)
(d) (B) and (E) and (A) – (D)
(e) No interchange required
Ans (b)
Sol. In the given statement, position of all the word is correct except (D) and (E) need to be interchanged to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence.
Direction (18-23): In each of the following questions, a sentence is divided into four parts; (A), (B), (C) and (D). There may be an error in one of the parts, which makes the sentence grammatically or contextually incorrect. Choose the option with the part containing error.
Q18. Under no circumstances (A)/you would be allowed to remain (B)/ out of home after ten o’clock , (C)/said Radhika to her son (D).
(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) No error
Ans (b)
Sol. When a sentence starts with ‘adverb or adverbial phrase’, inversion has to be done.
Q19. By working together or (A)/ exchanging services, people (B)/ are able to accomplishing (C)/ more than they would individually (D).
(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) No error
Ans (c)
Sol. The phrase ‘be able to’ has infinitive attached in it, thus first form of verb should be used in the end. Thus replace ‘accomplishing’ to ‘accomplish’.
Q20. The government is (A)/ expected to issue a statement (B) /regarding the investigation (C)/ to the press (D).
(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) No error
Ans (e)
Sol. There is no error in the statement.
Q21. It were not (A) /unusual for the bank (B)/ to involve in litigation(C)/ over failed companies. (D).
(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) No error
Ans (a)
Sol. It is not a conditional clause, but a single statement. Thus, it should be ‘It was’ instead of ‘It were’.
Q22. The company, Maruti Suzuki, (A) / has been producing ten million (B) / units since it was (C)/ established in 1982 (D).
(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) No error
Ans (b)
Sol. Here, the completion of ‘ten million’ units has been shown and for that present perfect tense should be used instead of ‘present perfect continuous tense’. Thus, ‘has been producing’ should be replaced with ‘has produced’.
Q23. The Supreme Court says Canadian (A)/judges has been too soft on (B)/ punishment for 30 years in giving (C)/offenders the lowest possible sentence (D)/.
(a) (A)
(b) (B)
(c) (C)
(d) (D)
(e) No error
Ans (b)
Sol. Since the subject of the object clause is ‘judges’, thus with that the verb should be ‘have’.
Directions (24-28): In the following questions five sentences are given with a phrase highlighted. These phrases may or may not be correct. Following the sentences are four phrases, from which one phrase will replace the incorrect phrase. The number of that correct phrase will be your answer. If the phrase is correct then option (e) i.e. “No replacement required” will be your answer.
Q24. The two scriptwriters have worked on close collaborate with each other on the script.
(a) in close collaborate
(b) from close collaborating
(c) on close collaborate
(d) in close collaboration
(e) No replacement required
Ans (d)
Sol. ‘in close collaboration’ is the correct phrase to choose. With ‘work’ the prepositions ‘with’ and ‘in’ is used, ‘in’ is used to show the indulging in something and ‘with’ is used to show ‘accompanied by something’. And, with ‘in’ collaboration should be used as a noun is required here, instead of gerund.
Q25. Yesterday, ahead of Diwali, the Union government announce the Non-Productivity Linked Bonus (Ad-hoc) equivalent to 30 days of emoluments for the accounting year 2018-19.
(a) government announces the
(b) government have announced the
(c) government announced the
(d) government is announced the
(e) No replacement required
Ans (c)
Sol. Since the tense of the sentence is of past, thus with that ‘announce’ should be replaced with ‘announced’.
Q26. If the UK will agree to the provisions on e-commerce, it will mean it won’t be allowed to impose data privatization rules on industries looking to do business in the UK.
(a) agree to the
(b) agrees to the
(c) shall agrees to the
(d) will agrees to the
(e) No replacement required
Ans (b)
Sol. In the conditional clause, we don’t use future tense, but the simple present tense. Thus it should be ‘If UK agrees to’.
Q27. U.S. Border police said that arrests at the U.S.-Mexico border fall in February for the three month in a row.
(a) border fell in
(b) border falled in
(c) border falling in
(d) border has fell in
(e) No replacement required
Ans (a)
Sol. Since the context is of past tense thus, ‘fell’ should be used which is a past tense of ‘fall’.
Q28. Although of the praise, Mr. Trump never formally nominated Mr. McAleenan to run the agency.
(a) Despite of the praise
(b) Whether the praise
(c) Despite the praise
(d) Although the praised
(e) No replacement required
Ans (c)
Sol. With ‘although’ we should not use ‘of’. And the tense of the statement is of present tense thus, option C should be chosen as Although is a conjunction but here a preposition is required and for that ‘despite’ should be used.
Direction (29-30): In the following question, the sentence given with blank/blanks to be filled in with appropriate word/words. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.
Q29. The war veteran said that the modern ethics could be flippant and ___________ at some times.
(a) paramount
(b) profound
(c) inane
(d) riveting
(e) innocuous
Ans (c)
Sol. The correct answer should be C as flippant and inane are synonymous to each other.
Inane means foolish
Flippant= not showing a serious or respectful attitude.
Paramount = important
Q30. Though Shashi was never ______________ for the murdering of his wife, the mental agony that he suffered did not let him recover from the shame and flak.
(a) charged
(b) accused
(c) indicted
(d) absolved
(e) booked
Ans (c)
Sol. The correct answer should be C as for the murder, the culprit gets charged for it, so in that context ‘indict’ is the most appropriate word.
Indict=to charge with a crime.
Acquit= to free someone with charge.
Absolve= declare (someone) free from guilt, obligation, or punishment.
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